DAY – 57 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY , PREVIOUS YEAR UPSC PAPER 2005 and Nov 2023 CA

Answer: a

Explanation:

• Carbon’s unique ability to form a wide variety of complex structures through catenation (bonding to other carbon atoms) and tetravalency (ability to form four bonds) makes it an ideal element for constructing complex drug molecules. This property allows carbon-based compounds to have diverse shapes, functional groups, and chemical properties, enabling the creation of a vast range of pharmaceuticals.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Answer: a

Explanation:

• Carbohydrates are organic compounds made of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen, typically in a 1:2:1 ratio. They serve as a significant energy source for the human body and can be classified into simple carbohydrates (like glucose and fructose) and complex carbohydrates (like starch and cellulose). Glucose, a monosaccharide or simple sugar, is a key source of energy and a primary product of photosynthesis in plants.
• Amino Acids: These are organic compounds containing an amino group (-NH2) and a carboxylic acid group (-COOH). Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins and do not primarily serve as energy sources.
• Glycerol: This is a trihydroxy alcohol, commonly found in fats and oils (as part of triglycerides). Although it contains carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen, it is not a carbohydrate; its structure and function differ from those of carbohydrates.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Answer: d

Explanation:

• India will also be part of the world’s largest radio telescope project called the Square Kilometre Array Observatory (SKAO).
• Countries have to sign, and ratify, the SKAO convention to formally become members. The Government of India’s approval for joining the project, with a financial sanction of Rs 1,250 crore, is the first step towards the ratification.
• SKAO is an intergovernmental organization that aims to build and operate cutting-edge radio telescopes. Its global headquarters is located in the Jodrell Bank Observatory, United Kingdom. Although South Africa will host some of the antennas, the headquarters is not located there. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• The SKAO is an international collaboration involving several countries. Some of the countries taking part in building the SKA include the UK, Australia, South Africa, Canada, China, France, India, Italy and Germany. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The SKAO is designed to be a large array of radio telescopes with thousands of antennas, to be installed in remote radio-quiet locations in South Africa and Australia. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• The study of gravitational waves is among the SKAO’s many objectives, alongside other astronomical research areas. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Answer: b

Explanation:

• Radio telescopes are specialized astronomical instruments designed to detect and study radio waves, a type of electromagnetic radiation with wavelengths ranging from 1 millimeter to 100 kilometers. Unlike optical telescopes, which capture visible light, radio telescopes allow scientists to observe celestial phenomena that are invisible to the naked eye.
• Radio telescopes are designed to detect radio waves, which are a type of electromagnetic wave. Unlike optical telescopes, radio telescopes can operate both during the day and at night, as they are not affected by visible light. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Radio telescopes use large dish-like antennas or arrays to detect and collect radio waves emitted by various celestial objects, such as stars, galaxies, and other cosmic sources. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Radio telescopes are used in various astronomical studies, including the observation of black holes, stars, the interstellar medium, and even the search for extraterrestrial life. Their applications are extensive and diverse. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Answer: d

Explanation:

• Heterotrophic organisms are those that cannot produce their own food and rely on obtaining nutrients from other sources, usually through consumption, absorption, or decomposition of organic materials.
• Cows obtain their food by eating plants (herbivores). They rely on other organisms for their energy and nutrients, making them heterotrophic.
• Fungi like bread moulds and yeast are heterotrophic because they obtain their nutrients from other organic matter. They often decompose organic material or form symbiotic or parasitic relationships with other organisms.
• Parasites like tape-worms are heterotrophic because they rely on living hosts to obtain their nutrients.
• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Answer: b

Explanation:

• Casgevy is recognized as the first licensed therapy using the CRISPR-Cas9 gene editing technology, marking a significant milestone in medical treatments. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Casgevy targets the BCL11A gene, which plays a role in switching from foetal to adult haemoglobin. By targeting this gene, the therapy encourages the body to produce more foetal haemoglobin, which does not carry the same abnormalities as adult haemoglobin. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Casgevy involves a single treatment (not multiple treatments) wherein blood stem cells are extracted, edited over a period of about six months, and then reintroduced to the patient. It does not require multiple sessions for the extraction and reintroduction of stem cells. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Casgevy’s mechanism focuses on promoting the production of foetal haemoglobin, which helps alleviate the symptoms of sickle cell disease and thalassaemia. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Answer: c

Explanation:

• The devastation caused by Covid-19 pandemic led to the rapid development of new techniques, like metagenomics, and ignited a paradigm shift in how we identify, monitor, and respond to emerging pathogens.
• Metagenomics is a rapidly advancing field of study that involves the analysis of complex microbial communities in their natural environments without the need to isolate or culture individual species. This approach provides a comprehensive view of the genomic composition of entire microbial ecosystems, shedding light on the diversity, abundance, and interactions of microbes in various contexts.
• Unlike traditional genomics, which typically involves the sequencing of isolated organisms, metagenomics focuses on collective sequencing. This method allows researchers to extract DNA from a sample that contains a mixed population of microorganisms, providing a snapshot of the entire community’s genetic material. By examining the complete set of genes from multiple species, metagenomics offers a broader perspective on microbial ecosystems.
• Applications of Metagenomics:
• Microbial Community Dynamics: By conducting longitudinal metagenome studies, scientists can observe how microbial communities evolve over time, particularly in response to environmental changes or human interventions.
• Biodiversity Studies: Metagenomics allows researchers to explore the microbial diversity in different ecosystems, such as soil, oceans, freshwater, and extreme environments like hot springs. This provides valuable insights into the role of microbes in maintaining ecosystem health.
• Human Microbiome Research: The human gut microbiome, a complex community of microbes in the digestive system, has been extensively studied through metagenomics. Researchers have uncovered how these microbes influence digestion, metabolism, immune function, and even mental health.
• Bioremediation and Environmental Cleanup: Metagenomics helps identify microorganisms capable of degrading pollutants and toxic compounds. These microbes can be harnessed for bioremediation, offering a natural approach to cleaning contaminated environments.
• Drug Discovery and Biotechnology: Metagenomics facilitates the discovery of novel genes and metabolic pathways responsible for the production of bioactive compounds. This has the potential to lead to new drugs and therapeutic agents.
• Agriculture and Plant-Microbe Interactions: Understanding microbial communities in agricultural soils through metagenomics can aid in optimizing nutrient cycling and enhancing crop productivity, leading to more sustainable agricultural practices.
• Metagenomics is distinct from traditional culturing methods because it analyzes the genomic material from complex microbial communities without the need for isolation or culturing of individual species.
• Hence, option(c) is correct.

Answer: c

Explanation:

• The small intestine is where the complete digestion of carbohydrates, proteins, and fats occurs. It receives digestive enzymes from the pancreas (like trypsin for proteins and lipase for fats) and bile from the liver to help break down and emulsify fats. Additionally, its inner lining contains glands that secrete intestinal juice with enzymes that convert proteins to amino acids, complex carbohydrates to glucose, and fats into fatty acids and glycerol.
• Hence, option(c) is correct.

Answer: b

Explanation:

• Scientists have known of somatic variants for many years, but recently, there has been an explosion in the amount of data.
• Somatic mutations refer to alterations in the DNA sequence that occur in somatic cells—those that are not involved in reproduction, like sperm or egg cells—after conception. Unlike germline mutations, which are inherited and can be passed from parents to offspring, somatic mutations happen sporadically or due to environmental factors and are confined to the affected individual.
• Somatic mutations occur in body cells after conception and do not occur in germ cells (sperm or egg cells). As a result, these mutations are not inherited and cannot be passed from parents to their offspring. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Somatic mutations can play a significant role in various cancers, such as skin and lung cancer, as well as in other non-hereditary conditions, as they occur in somatic cells and can influence their behaviour. Cancer occurs when somatic mutations lead to uncontrolled cell growth and division. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Answer: b

Explanation:

• AstraZeneca, the company that makes the Covishield vaccine for Covid-19 pandemic, has admitted the inoculation has potential side effects.
• The company’s admission, presented in a legal document before the High Court of Justice in London, conveys that the Covid vaccine can in extremely rare cases induce Thrombosis with Thrombocytopenia Syndrome (TTS).
• TTS is a rare condition characterized by the formation of blood clots (thrombosis) in blood vessels and a low number of blood platelets (thrombocytopenia).
• It has been observed as an extremely rare adverse effect associated with certain COVID-19 vaccines, notably those that use adenovirus vectors, like the Covishield.
• Adenovirus vectors are non-enveloped, double-stranded DNA viruses that are commonly used for gene therapy, vaccination, and cancer gene therapy.
• They are considered the most efficient gene delivery vehicles due to their safety profile and expression.
• Symptoms of TTS
• A range of symptoms are associated with TTS, including breathlessness, pain in the chest or limbs, pinhead-size red spots or bruising of the skin in an area beyond the injection site, headaches, numbness in body parts, etc.
• TTS could mean a restriction in the flow of blood due to clotting.
• Complications depend on where the thrombosis is located. The most serious problems include stroke, heart attack, and serious breathing problems.
• Hence, option(b) is correct.

Solution : B

• The Asia and Pacific Plant Protection Commission was convened for the first time in 1956
• the commission administers the Regional Plant Protection Agreement for the Asia and Pacific
• It reviews the plant protection situation at National level in member countries and also at regional levels
• It helps member countries analyse risk to the national plant resources and use science based measures to safeguard their cultivated and wild plants .
• The Rotterdam Convention is a multilateral Treaty to promote Shared responsibilities in relation to importation of hazardous chemicals; it was signed in 1998 and came to effect from February 2004.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect 

• The commission works to ensure that production, trade and use of chemical pesticides are properly and effectively regulated in line with the FAO Code of Conduct on Pesticides Management and other international treaties as well as to reduce the pesticide risk as much as possible.
• The commission advances the increasing use and effectiveness of Integrated Pest Management approach in the region through Farmer Field Schools, FAO regional Integrated Pest Management programs, collaborative Research and capacity building programs for farmers, trainers and plant protection workers
• It coordinates regional Information sharing and agreements so that member countries can adopt IPM technology that are appropriate for their situations.

Hence statements 2 and 3 are correct

Solution : C

Recently the ‘Core loading’ at India’s first indigenous Fast breeder reactor (500 MWe) at Kalapakkam, Tamil Nadu has commenced.

• The Fast breeder reactor will initially use the Uranium-plutonium mixed oxide
•  the uranium 238 blanket surrounding the fuel core will undergo nuclear transmutation to produce more fuel, thus earning the name Breeder.
• The use of thorium 232 which in itself is not a fissile material as a blanket is also envisaged in this stage
• by transmutation thorium will create fissile uranium 233 which will be used as a fuel in the third stage
• this reactor is the stepping stone for third stage of the program paving the way for eventual full utilisation of abundant thorium reserves of India.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• In terms of safety the Fast breeder reactor is an advanced third generation reactor with inherent passive safety features ensuring a prompt and safe shut down of the plant in the event of an emergency
• Since it uses spent fuel from the first stage, the reactor also offers great advantage in terms of significant reduction in nuclear waste generated thereby avoiding the need for large geological disposal facilities.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Answer: D

Explanation:

The outstanding Sun Temple at Modhera is located on the left bank of the river Pushpavati, a tributary of river Rupan in Becharaji Taluka of Mehsana District of Gujarat.

Modhera is called Mundera, the original settlement of the Modha Brahmans and is fabled to have been given them as a Krishnarpana on occasion of marriage of Ram and Sita.

Statement 1 is not correct: The temple, built in Maru-gurjara architectural style, consists of the main temple shrine (garbhagriha), a hall (gadhamandapa), an outer hall or assembly hall (Sabhamandapa or rangamandapa) and a sacred pool (Kunda) which is now called Ramakunda.

Statement 2 is not correct: It was built in the 11th century of western India under the patronage of the Solanki dynasty. The age of the temple may be inferred from its style belonging to the reign of Bhimadeva I (1022-1063 CE).

Statement 3 is not correct: Along with the 8th century CE Martand Sun Temple in Kashmir and the 13th century CE Sun temple at Konark, this temple forms invaluable link in the history of diffusion of the practice of Surya worship in India, which originates in Kashmir during the 8th Century CE.

The ancient Sun Temple of Modhera is older than the Konark Sun Temple in Orissa.

Solution : D

• The Bangkok vision 2030 is a plan document of the members of the Bay of Bengal Initiative for  Multisectoral  Technical and Economic Cooperation or BIMSTEC.
• It is envisaged an document that will give direction to the organisation and the eminent persons who would also be guided by it
• BIMSTEC includes Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka and Thailand
• In 2022, the BIMSTEC chartered was adopted which lays the foundation for it to function as a full fledged organisation.
• its geographical dimension  encompasses the Bay of Bengal’s shoreline and neighbouring territories resulting in a seamless regional unity
• It serves as a link between south and South East Asia and is dedicated to developing collaboration on similar interests and providing and enabling climate for Rapid development.

Hence option D is correct

Solution : A

• MethaneSAT has been developed in collaboration between Environmental Defence Fund ( an US based non-profit environmental advocacy group) along with Harvard University, the New Zealand Space Agency and Smithsonian Astrophysical Observatory.
• It will Orbit the earth 15 times a day
•  it will generate data that will show how much Methane is coming from where, whose responsible and are those emissions going up or down over time.
• Its data will be made public for free in near real time that will allows stakeholders and regulators to take action to reduce methane emissions.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are incorrect

• It will Orbit the earth 15 times a day, monitoring the oil and Gas sector
• it is equipped with high resolution infrared sensor and a spectrometer and can track differences in Methane concentrations as small as three parts per billion in the atmosphere which enables it to pick smaller emission sources then other satellites.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Also known as a direct public offering, this refers to a method used by companies to attract investment capital directly from the common public.

A direct listing is different from an initial public offering (IPO) where shares of a company are first bought by an intermediary such as an investment bank or a brokerage before those shares are offered for sale to retail investors by the intermediary.

Statement 2 is not correct: Direct listing is considered riskier than an IPO since demand for the company’s stock among retail investors will determine the total amount of funds the company attracts.

Statement 3 is correct: In the case of an IPO, the risk is offloaded onto the intermediary who purchases the company’s shares.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Option (c) is correct: Bio-hydrogen is a proven technology that only needs to be perfected for cost-effectiveness.

• There are different ways of producing bio-hydrogen such as anaerobic fermentation (aka dark fermentation), photo fermentation and microbial electrolysis. The last one is seen as holding more promise.
• Reducing costs of production by increasing the yield seems to be more of an engineering problem, which involves issues like pre-treatment of algal biomass, choice of enzymes and evacuation of hydrogen produced because the presence of hydrogen inhibits further production of the gas.
• Pure hydrogen exists deep underground, like natural gas, waiting to be dug out. This route of hydrogen production is yet to happen in a major way globally, but some companies are working on it.
• India’s ONGC has dug tens of thousands of wells for exploration and production of hydrocarbons.

Answer: A

Explanation:

The Rajaji Tiger Reserve with its picturesque beauty and rich biodiversity serves as a major attraction for nature lovers and wildlife enthusiasts.

Rajaji Tiger Reserve is situated along the hills and foothills of Shiwalik ranges and represent the Shiwalik eco-system.

Statement 1 is correct: It’s location in a transition zone between temperate western Himalaya and central Himalaya enhances the species diversity and consequently the viewing prospects.

Statement 2 is correct: The area is covered with diverse forest types ranging from semi-evergreen to deciduous and from mixed broad-leaved to Terai grassland and has been classified as Indus-Ganges Monsoon Forest type.

Statement 3 is not correct: The Samaspur Bird Sanctuary is located in the Raebareli district of Uttar Pradesh and is a perennial lowland marsh typical of the Indo-Gangetic Plains and not the Himalayas. Its six connected lakes are heavily relevant on monsoon rains.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: Bolivia is bordered by 5 countries: by Brazil to the north and east; by Paraguay to the southeast; by Argentina to the south; by Chile to the southwest and by Peru to the northwest.

Statement 2 is correct: The landlocked nation of Bolivia is located in west-central South America. It is positioned in the Western and Southern hemispheres of the Earth.

Statement 3 is correct: Situated in the heart of South America, the Pantanal is the world’s largest tropical wetland. At 42 million acres, the Pantanal covers an area slightly larger than nine U.S. states and sprawls across three countries—Bolivia, Brazil, and Paraguay.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Option (d) is correct: SVEEP is the flagship program of the Election Commission of India for voter education, spreading voter awareness and promoting voter literacy in India.

• It is a multi-intervention programme that reaches out through different modes and media to educate citizens, electors, and voters about the electoral process in order to increase their awareness and promote their informed participation.
• SVEEP is designed according to the socio-economic, cultural, and demographic profile of the state as well as history of electoral participation in previous rounds of elections.
• The Commission produces several voter awareness materials and disseminates the same through various mediums/platforms of communication i.e Print Media, Electronic Media, Social Media etc.

Solution: b)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/11/27/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-27-november-2023/

Solution: c)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/11/27/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-27-november-2023/

Solution: c)

Justification: Optical fibres, made of thin glass strands, can transmit various forms of digital information, such as text, images, voices, and videos, across long distances at nearly the speed of light.

The development of fibre optic communication can be traced back to physicist Charles Kao, who proposed glass fibres as a superior medium for telecommunication over 60 years ago.

Working principle of optical fibres:

It relies on total internal reflection to guide light through the glass strands, allowing signals to travel across significant distances with minimal loss of optical power.

The historical evolution of fibre optic cables is outlined, starting from early experiments with light guiding in the 19th century to the breakthroughs in the mid-20th century that led to the development of long-distance transmission.

The current state of fibre optic technology is highlighted, with optical fibres playing crucial roles in telecommunication, medical science, laser technology, and sensing.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/11/29/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-29-november-2023/

Solution: d)

Justification: The Technology Development Board (TDB) and the Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) have formed an alliance to support the Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprise (MSME) sector.

TDB is a statutory body established (in 1996; under the Department of Science and Technology)  to promote the development and commercialization of indigenous and imported technology. It consists of 11 board members and provides equity capital or loans to industrial concerns and financial assistance to research and development institutions.

The TDB has supported the establishment of the Global Innovation & Technology Alliance (GITA) ( a not–for–profit Public Private Partnership (PPP) company to encourage industrial investments in innovative technology solutions)

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/11/20/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-20-november-2023/

Solution: c)

Justification: CFR is common forest land protected by a community for sustainable use, recognized under the Forest Rights Act (FRA) since 2008. It includes various forest categories, and CFR rights allow the community to manage, conserve, and formulate rules for sustainable forest use, ensuring their livelihoods and fostering local conservation practices.

The Forest Conservation Amendment Act of 2023, aimed at addressing climate change and deforestation, raises concerns due to its potential impact on indigenous communities and forest inhabitants.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/10/19/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-19-october-2023/

Answer: C

In the Above passage-

Option A – It is halfhearted truth as per passage, the passage hold that Data can be useful when it provides anonymous, aggregated, and statistical information about issues without identifying the individuals. So it is not always unsafe.

Option B – The statement is true but not very explicitly mentioned in the passage it is confined to the surveillance and not the absolute authority. So option B is not correct.

Option C – It is most scientific inference because passage apprehends of the surveillance by the state using the 360 profile of the individual and personal information.

Option D – The statement is opposite state has more authority to collect the data because state has legal authority which corporates does not have.

Answer: A

Statement 1 – It is true because companies are more concerned of more consumer subscription so they target advertisement but state target the political and other choices of the people through surveillance.

Statement 2 – This statement is out of the context of the passage so it cannot be considered as correct assumption.

Answer: B

In the Above passage

Statement 1 -The passage talks about risk associated with data collection by government. It does not talk about role of e-governance how far the data has use value. 1 is wrong.

Statement 2 – Since moral and beneficial value of government data collection is not guaranteed unless privacy is ensured, technology role is not sole, need to ensure legal framework to protect privacy is also good. So 2 is correct.

Answer Option B) If Statement II is sufficient for the answer.

From second statement, we get

• roses) sunflower (12 roses) lily (7 roses).

Explanation:

Sun rises in the east in the morning. Since the shadow of Suresh falls to his right. So he is facing South.