DAY – 56 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – POLTY , PREVIOUS YEAR UPSC PAPER 2004, Insta prelims tests 35 & 36 and Oct 2023 CA

Explanation:

• India has been a key partner in the defence training of the Maldivian National Defence Force (MNDF). India provides the largest number of training opportunities for the MNDF, meeting around 70% of their defence training requirements. This robust training partnership underscores the close defence cooperation between India and the Maldives. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• In 1988, the Maldives experienced an attempted coup, and India responded with Operation Cactus to stabilize the situation. India’s prompt intervention to restore order in the Maldives played a significant role in building trust and establishing a friendly bilateral relationship between the two countries. India’s assistance helped to demonstrate its commitment to the security and stability of the Maldives. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) signed between India and the Maldives for 2023-2024 is related to judicial cooperation. It involves the exchange of information and collaboration in the field of judicial matters, focusing on enhancing the justice system in the Maldives. This MoU is not focused on technology and education. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Answer: a

Explanation:

• India’s Neighbourhood First Policy is a central tenet of its foreign policy, emphasizing the importance of building strong, stable, and cooperative relationships with its immediate neighbours.
• The concept of the Neighbourhood First Policy emerged in 2008, reflecting India’s commitment to strengthening ties with its neighbours. This approach prioritizes a collaborative, consultative, and non-reciprocal engagement with countries in the region, seeking to enhance connectivity, infrastructure development, economic cooperation, security, and people-to-people exchanges.
• India’s immediate neighbourhood includes Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, China, Maldives, Myanmar, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka. These countries share land and maritime boundaries with India and have deep civilizational links, with a shared history, culture, and extensive social connections.
• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Answer: b

Explanation:

• Migration and Mobility Partnership Agreement (MMPA) between India and Italy was signed in November 2023 during the visit of External Affairs Minister to Italy. India and Italy have excellent bilateral relations, people to people ties and historical bonds of friendship. MMPA will further strengthen our peoples’ connect and mobility.
• In particular, the Agreement will facilitate mobility of employed, self-employed workers, skilled workers, students, academics, researchers, business people, artists, according to identified needs of respective labour markets; thereby providing employment opportunities for Indian workers and professionals.
• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Answer: a

Explanation:

• The Innovation Handshake is a ground-breaking concept developed under the US-India Commercial Dialogue, designed to foster stronger ties between India and the United States in the realm of technology, business, and innovation. This initiative focuses on creating an open platform for dialogue among government officials, venture capitalists, entrepreneurs, and industry players to explore opportunities and address challenges in key sectors.
• The Innovation Handshake emerged from the broader goal of enhancing cooperation between India and the US, particularly in the context of the US-India Critical and Emerging Technology (CET) initiative. The memorandum of understanding (MoU) for the Innovation Handshake was signed in November 2023, reflecting a commitment to deepen the engagement between the two nations.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Answer: a

Explanation:

• India is hosted the Annual Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence (GPAI) Summit from December 12 – 14, 2023.
• The Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence (GPAI) was launched in June 2020, marking the formal establishment of a multi-stakeholder initiative aimed at promoting the responsible development and use of artificial intelligence.
• As of now, GPAI has 28 members, including the European Union, indicating the broad international support for the initiative. This diverse membership reflects a global commitment to advancing AI technologies responsibly.
• Membership in GPAI is open to all countries, including emerging and developing countries.
• Its secretariat is hosted at the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD), Paris.
• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Answer: a

Explanation:

• Recently, the International Organisation for Migration (IOM) launched Project PRAYAS to help Indian workers and students migrate in a secure, orderly, and regular manner.
• The project seeks to consolidate state-level initiatives into a unified approach that strengthens international migration governance. This is achieved by coordinating efforts among state governments, central authorities, and other stakeholders involved in the migration process.
• Project PRAYAS aims to consolidate all state-level initiatives for safe, orderly, and well-managed international migration. This includes integrating various regional approaches to migration into a more cohesive framework. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Project PRAYAS intends to undertake a study to capture migration trends and share this analysis with the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA). The objective is to provide a better understanding of the needs and aspirations of migrants, along with the major international migration and mobility initiatives undertaken by the central and state governments. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Project PRAYAS does not primarily focus on providing financial support to migrants during their transition abroad. Its emphasis is on facilitating safe, orderly, and regular migration for Indian migrant workers and students through policy recommendations, studies, and coordination with state and central authorities. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Answer: b

Explanation:

• India established the “Global Alliance for Global Good – Gender Equity and Equality” at the 54th annual World Economic Forum (WEF) in Davos, gaining full support from WEF for promoting women’s empowerment and gender equality.
• The alliance is a response to the G20 Summit 2023 Leaders’ Declaration and India’s commitment to women-led development.
• It seeks to build on the initiatives of the Engagement Group and frameworks like Business 20, Women 20, and G20 EMPOWER.
• The G20 Alliance for the Empowerment and Progression of Women’s Economic Representation (G20 EMPOWER) is an initiative that aims to increase women’s leadership and empowerment in the private sector.
• The primary objective of this new Alliance is to bring together global best practices, knowledge sharing and investments in the identified areas of women’s health, education, and enterprise.
• Supported by the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation, the alliance will be housed and anchored by the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) Centre for Women Leadership.
• The “Global Alliance for Global Good – Gender Equity and Equality” is anchored by the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) Centre for Women Leadership. This organization plays a central role in the alliance by hosting and supporting its operations, focusing on initiatives that promote gender equity and women’s empowerment in various sectors.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Answer: a

Explanation:

• The scheme Scholarships for Higher Education for Young Achievers Scheme (SHREYAS), has been proposed to be implemented during the 2021-22 to 2025-26 by placing two ongoing Central Sector Schemes for OBC (Other Backward Classes) and EBC.
• These schemes are, National Fellowship for OBC and Dr. Ambedkar Central Sector Scheme of Interest Subsidy on Educational Loans for Overseas Studies for OBCs and Economically Backward Classes (EBCs).
• The National Fellowship for OBC Students under SHREYAS is designed to support OBC students pursuing higher education, specifically at the M.Phil and Ph.D. It offers financial assistance to facilitate their advanced studies and research in recognized universities, research institutions, and scientific establishments.
• This financial assistance is provided through Junior Research Fellowships (JRFs), with 1000 fellowships awarded annually to students who have qualified through specific tests like the UGC-NET or UGC-CSIR NET-JRF Joint Test.
• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Answer: d

Explanation:

• “National Action for Mechanized Sanitation Ecosystem” (NAMASTE) for cleaning sewers, and septic tanks (implementation from 2022 to 2026) as a Central Sector Scheme.
• The scheme is being undertaken jointly by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs and the Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment (MoSJE) and aims to eradicate unsafe sewer and septic tank cleaning practices.
• Union Budget 2023-2024 has allocated nearly Rs 100 crore for the National Action for Mechanized Sanitation Ecosystem (NAMASTE) and the government is looking to enable 100% mechanical desludging of septic tanks and sewers in all cities and towns.
• Objectives:
• Zero fatalities in sanitation work in India.
• All sanitation work is performed by skilled workers.
• No sanitation workers come in direct contact with human faecal matter.
• Sanitation workers are collectivised into Self Help Groups (SHGs) and are empowered to run sanitation enterprises.
• Strengthened supervisory and monitoring systems at National, State and Urban Local Body (ULB) levels to ensure enforcement and monitoring of safe sanitation work.
• Increased awareness among sanitation services seekers (individuals and institutions) to seek services from registered and skilled sanitation workers.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Answer: b

Explanation:

• The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) launched the ‘AAINA Dashboard for Cities’ portal, offering Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) a platform to voluntarily submit key data on November, 2023.
• AAINA aims to help cities assess their performance relative to others. It seeks to inspire cities by highlighting possibilities and areas for enhancement.
• The Dashboard categorizes data into five pillars: Political & Administrative Structure, Finance, Planning, Citizen-Centric Governance, and Delivery of Basic Services.
• The ‘AAINA Dashboard for Cities’ is designed to help Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) see how they are faring compared to other cities. This objective is achieved by collecting and presenting key data on the dashboard, allowing cities to benchmark their performance.
• The dashboard also aims to inspire cities by pointing to possibilities and areas of improvement. By highlighting best practices and successful initiatives from other cities, it encourages ULBs to adopt and adapt these practices for their own improvement.
• The dashboard does not rank Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) based on their key performance metrics. Instead, it provides a comparison platform for similarly placed cities without explicitly ranking them, focusing on peer learning and cooperative improvement rather than competition.
• The ‘AAINA Dashboard for Cities’ promotes peer learning among cities. By enabling ULBs to compare themselves with others and engage with frontrunners, the dashboard fosters an environment where cities can learn from each other and collaboratively work towards better governance and service delivery.
• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

mRNA stands for messenger RNA, is a form of nucleic acid which carries genetic information. Like other vaccines, the mRNA vaccine also attempts to activate the immune system to produce antibodies that help counter an infection from a live virus.

Statement 1 is correct: mRNA vaccines only introduces a piece of the genetic material that corresponds to a viral protein. This is usually a protein found on the membrane of the virus and is called spike protein.

A piece of DNA must be converted into RNA for a cell to be able manufacture the spike protein.

Statement 2 is correct: While an mRNA vaccine might look like a more direct approach to getting the cell to produce the necessary proteins, mRNA is very fragile and will be shred apart at room temperature or by the body’s enzymes when injected.

Statement 3 is not correct: Therefore, the mRNA vaccine does not expose individuals to the virus itself.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Kolleru Lake is a natural eutrophic lake, situated between the two major river basins of the Godavari and the Krishna, fed by two seasonal rivers and a number of drains and channels, which functions as a natural flood balancing reservoir between the deltas of the two rivers.

Statement 2 is not correct: Kurinji or Strobilanthes cynthiana, which blooms once in 12 years, is found in the catchment area of Kodai Lake of Tamil Nadu, not in the Kolleru Lake.

Statement 3 is correct: Kolleru Lake provides habitat for a number of resident and migratory birds, including declining numbers of the vulnerable Grey Pelican (Pelecanus philippensis), and sustains both culture and capture fisheries, agriculture and related occupations of the people in the area.

Answer: D

Explanation:

The outstanding Sun Temple at Modhera is located on the left bank of the river Pushpavati, a tributary of river Rupan in Becharaji Taluka of Mehsana District of Gujarat.

Modhera is called Mundera, the original settlement of the Modha Brahmans and is fabled to have been given them as a Krishnarpana on occasion of marriage of Ram and Sita.

Statement 1 is not correct: The temple, built in Maru-gurjara architectural style, consists of the main temple shrine (garbhagriha), a hall (gadhamandapa), an outer hall or assembly hall (Sabhamandapa or rangamandapa) and a sacred pool (Kunda) which is now called Ramakunda.

Statement 2 is not correct: It was built in the 11th century of western India under the patronage of the Solanki dynasty. The age of the temple may be inferred from its style belonging to the reign of Bhimadeva I (1022-1063 CE).

Statement 3 is not correct: Along with the 8th century CE Martand Sun Temple in Kashmir and the 13th century CE Sun temple at Konark, this temple forms invaluable link in the history of diffusion of the practice of Surya worship in India, which originates in Kashmir during the 8th Century CE.

The ancient Sun Temple of Modhera is older than the Konark Sun Temple in Orissa.

Answer: B

Explanation:

The International Coral Reef Initiative (ICRI) is an informal partnership between Nations and organizations which strives to preserve coral reefs and related ecosystems around the world.

Statement 1 is not correct: ICRI was launched at the United Nations Global Conference on Sustainable Development of Small Islands Developing States in Barbados in 1994.

Statement 2 is correct: ICRI is a joint initiative of several countries in partnership with other coral reef nations around the world, non-governmental organizations (NGOs), international organizations, multilateral development banks, and private sector businesses.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Option (c) is correct: Inspired by the 5F vision of the Prime Minister (i.e. Farm to Fibre to Factory to Fashion to Foreign), the PM MITRA Parks are a major step forward in realising the Government’s vision of making India a global hub for textile manufacturing and exports.

• India has launched PM MITRA scheme to set up mega textile parks and promote the entire value chain.
• It is expected that these parks will enhance the competitiveness of the textiles industry by helping it achieve economies of scale as well as attract global players to manufacture in India.
• Eligible States and sites were evaluated using a transparent Challenge Method based on objective criteria taking into account a variety of factors such as connectivity, existing ecosystem, textile/industry policy, infrastructure, utility services etc.
• PM MITRA Parks will help in creating world-class industrial infrastructure that would attract large scale investment including foreign direct investment (FDI) and encourage innovation and job creation within the sector.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Cirques are the most common landforms in glaciated mountains. The cirques quite often are found at the heads of glacial valleys.

The accumulated ice cuts these cirques while moving down the mountain tops.

They are deep, long and wide troughs or basins with very steep concave to vertically dropping high walls at its head as well as sides.

A lake of water can be seen quite often within the cirques after the glacier disappears.

Such lakes are called cirque or tarn lakes. There can be two or more cirques one leading into another down below in a stepped sequence.

Statement 2 is correct: Very deep glacial troughs filled with sea water and making up shorelines (in high latitudes) are called fjords/fiords

Answer: A

Explanation:

Option (a) is correct: The Golden Crescent is a key area of illegal opium growth spanning Western, Central, and South Asia. It covers the mountains of Afghanistan, Iran, and Pakistan. It should not be confused with the Golden Triangle which is the only other significant region of illegal opium growing area.

It is easy to differentiate the two by geographical coverage because the Golden Triangle covers South East Asia at the borders of Laos, Thailand, and Myanmar.

The opium grown in the Golden Crescent is the raw ingredient in the production of certain illicit drugs and other legal medicinal drugs.

Solution: B

Sixth Schedule

Provisions relating to the administration of tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.

Seventh Schedule

Division of powers between the Union and the States in terms of List I (Union List), List II (State List) and List III (Concurrent List).

Eighth Schedule

Languages recognized by the Constitution. Originally, it had 14 languages but presently there are 22 languages.

Ninth Schedule

Acts and Regulations (originally 13 but presently 282) of the state legislatures dealing with land reforms and abolition of the zamindari system and of the Parliament dealing with other matters. This schedule was added by the 1st Amendment (1951) to protect the laws included in it from judicial scrutiny on the ground of violation of fundamental rights. However, in 2007, the Supreme Court ruled that the laws included in this schedule after April 24, 1973, are now open to judicial review.

Solution : A

• Duqm port is in Oman.
• It is strategically important for India’s maritime strategy in the Indian Ocean.
•  It provides India with access to the Gulf of Oman Red Sea  the Indian Ocean and the Arabian Sea
•  this location is significant as it allows India to counter China’s expanding presence in the region.

Hence pair 1 is incorrect

• Dammam port is in Saudi Arabia
• It is the largest port in the Persian Gulf and the third largest and third busiest in the Middle East and North Africa region.
• It is a major export Centre for oil industry and key distribution Centre for Major landlocked cities in the country.
• It is one of the fort that is shortlisted to be connected to the Indian ports under the India- Middle East- Europe Economic Corridor that has been launched by India, US, Saudi Arabia, UAE along with other countries.

Hence pair 2 is incorrect

• Mongla port is in Bangladesh.
• Recently the Prime Ministers of India and Bangladesh inaugurated three important Indian assisted development projects- khulna-Mongla port railway, Akhaura- Agartala cross border rail link and Maitree Super Thermal Power Project
• The khulna-Mongla port rail line project will be implemented under India’s concessional line of credit
• It involves constructing 65 km of broad gauge rail route connecting Mongla port with Khulna’s  existing Rail Network.

Hence pair 3 is correct

Solution : B

• Seaweeds are macroscopic multicellular Marine algal species they can be of different colours- red, green and brown.
• Some can also be microscopic such as the phytoplankton that lives suspended in the water column or can be enormous like the giant kelp that grow in abundant forest.
•  These are found mostly in shallow and deep waters and also in estuaries and backwaters.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Seaweed extracts are used in wide range of products including cosmetics, pharmaceutical industry and bioplastics
• they offer sustainable alternative to conventional options that can be harmful to the environment.
• Seaweeds produce polysaccharides while growing that can be used as a biomaterials for bioplastic production or as binding agents
• the by-product of photosynthesis is clean air and oxygen;  seaweed bioplastics biodegrade in the soil in only few weeks.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Alginate is obtained from brown algae, amarine seaweed ;it is used as thickener and stabilizer in ice cream sauces and other food items
• Gelatine which is widely used in several food products specially bakery items, is a protein made from animal collagen usually from cows and pigs ; it is used to make cosmetics, capsules, ointments along with food items.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution: d)

Justification: Dogra architecture is a term used to describe the buildings and structures constructed by the Dogra Hindu kings who ruled over Jammu. The Dogra kings ruled from 1846 to 1947.

Dogra architecture in Jammu and Kashmir is characterized by:

• Use of local materials: Utilizes stone, wood, and bricks from the region.
• Symmetrical designs: Often feature symmetrical layouts and ornate detailing.
• Wooden balconies: Prominent use of intricately carved wooden balconies.
• Sloping roofs: Sloped roofs to withstand snowfall, with overhanging eaves.
• Courtyards: Central courtyards for light and ventilation in homes.
• Influence of Hindu and Tibetan styles: Combines elements of both architectural traditions.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/10/25/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-25-october-2023/

Solution: b)

Justification: The purple economy is an economic order that focuses on the sustainability of caring labour. It’s an alternative vision that complements the green economy. The purple economy aims to:

• Organize the system around the sustainability of caring labour
• Address the inequalities created by the disproportionate reliance on women’s unpaid and underpaid labour
• Contribute to sustainable development by promoting the cultural potential of goods and services
• Contribute to a richer and more diverse cultural environment

Shanti Raghavan, the recipient of the Business Line Changemakers Award in 2020, leads the organization EnAble India. They are working on creating a ‘purple economy,’ which promotes disability inclusion and job opportunities on a large scale.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/10/28/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-28-october-2023/

Solution: c)

Justification: In India, elephant reserves and corridors have no legal sanctity under any law, including the Wildlife Protection Act (WLPA), 1972. The act mentions only national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, conservation and community reserves (collectively called Protected Areas).

Context: The Lemru Elephant Reserve (Hasdeo Aranya forests) in the Korba district of Chhattisgarh, aims to reduce human-elephant conflicts as elephants migrate from Odisha and Jharkhand. This biodiverse area, often called the lungs of Chhattisgarh, also contains significant coal deposits.

The state government notified the reserve (Conservation Reserve) in October 2020 under Section 36A of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972(WLPA).

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/10/25/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-25-october-2023/

Solution: c)

Justification: Marriages in India can be registered under the respective personal laws (e.g., Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, Muslim Personal Law Application Act, 1937) or under the Special Marriage Act, 1954.

The Special Marriage Act, 1954 has provisions for civil marriage for people of India and all Indian nationals in foreign countries, irrespective of religion or faith followed by either party.

When a person solemnises marriage under this law, then the marriage is not governed by personal laws but by the Special Marriage Act.

As for same-sex marriages, the legality of same-sex marriages is not expressly recognized as a fundamental or constitutional right but is governed by statutory law. In 2018, the Indian Supreme Court decriminalized same-sex marriage.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/10/19/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-19-october-2023/

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/10/19/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-19-october-2023/

Answer: D

Option A – Passage nowhere emphasize such fact that Inclusive growth of India is solely determined by ease of migration rather it talks of interstate migration and social security benefits and need for enabling provisions.

Option B – In the passage non-portability only has been shown as barrier not cultural and linguistic barrier so this statement is wrong as per passage.

Option C – It is suggestion which is out of the passage although passage once talks that center is eager to adopt portability but nowhere it talks on transfer of subject of migration to union list.

Option D – Statement is correct because passage nowhere tells that there is problem because of too much migration so statement D is correct.

Answer: B

In the above passage

Assumption 1 – is incorrect because it is not mentioned in the passage that they lack funding to absorb and accommodate, passage talks about the portability of the social benefit and enabling need for enabling provisions so statement 1 is incorrect.

Assumption 2 – Statement 2 is correct because it can be assumed that if matching skills will be seamlessly available across geographies it will facilitate the ease of doing business by reducing the interstate migration and reduce the challenge of transferring social security benefits.

Answer Option B) If Statement II is sufficient for the answer.

Using the statement I we cannot answer the question because no speed is given.

But using II we can.

Since the cycles are going to meet 30 minutes , which means , the relative speed = 30 + 40 = 70 km/hr.

So the gap = speed x time .So we can find the distance .Hence option B is correct.

Answer Option C) If Statement I and II are sufficient for the answer but neither of the two alone is sufficient

Clearly both statements are given the required answer, Hence option C is correct.

Answer: C) South-East

Explanation:

It is clear from the diagrams that new name of West will become South-East.