INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024
Quiz-summary
0 of 30 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
Information
Read about Insights IAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Prelims – 2024 [ HERE ] :
DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(GS) [HERE] :
DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(CSAT) [HERE] :
Download MITRA booklet (My Insta Tests Revision and Assessment) – It’s for to track your daily progress while following Insta 75 Days plan. [ CLICK HERE ] :
Wish you Good Luck! 🙂
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 30 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
Average score |
|
Your score |
|
Categories
- Not categorized 0%
Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result |
---|---|---|---|---|
Table is loading | ||||
No data available | ||||
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about Rani Chennamma:
- She was one of the prominent leaders from Karnataka who fought the British during the 1857 revolt.
- After her capture, Rani Chennamma was imprisoned in the Kittur Fort in Karnataka.
- In 2024, the Indian government issued a postage stamp in honour of Rani Chennamma.
How many of the above are correct?
Correct
Answer: d
Explanation:
- Commemorating 200 years of Rani Chennamma’s rebellion against the British East India Company, several social groups across India have organised a national campaign, Naanoo Rani Chennamma (I am Rani Chennamma too) on 21st February, 2024.
- The Campaign is trying to invoke Chennamma’s memory to show that women can be the vanguards of safeguarding dignity and justice. Rani Chennamma’s bravery is an inspiration to the women of the country.
About Rani Chennamma:
- Chenamma was born on 23rd October 1778, in Kagati, a small village in present-day Belagavi district in Karnataka.
- She became the queen of Kittur on her marriage to Shivalinga Rudra Sarja, of the Desai family of Kittur.
- Shivalinga Rudra Sarja did not have children and therefore adopted Shivalingappa who was renamed as Mallasarja.
After the death of Sivalinga Rudra Sarja, Chennamma started ruling the kingdom in the name of the minor prince.
Under the doctrine of Lapse, any princely state without a natural heir would collapse and would be annexed by the Company.
John Thackery, the British official at Dharwad, launched an attack on Kittur in October 1824. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
Battle against British:
- In 1824, a fleet of 20,000 British soldiers was positioned on the foothills of the Kittur fort as they attempted to invade the former princely state of Karnataka.
- Trained in martial arts and military tactics, she was a formidable leader.
- She led her army into battle, employing guerrilla warfare tactics to surprise the British forces.
- The conflict lasted several days, but ultimately, the British prevailed due to their superior firepower.
- Despite her capture and imprisonment in Bailhongal Fort (Belagavi, Karnataka), Rani Chennamma’s spirit remained unbroken. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
- Her rebellion inspired countless others to stand up against British rule. She became a symbol of courage and defiance.
- In 2007, the Indian government honoured her by issuing a postage stamp in her name. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
- Several Kannada lavanis or folk songs are recited that fondly remember Rani Chennamma as a protector and guardian.
- Hence, option (d) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: d
Explanation:
- Commemorating 200 years of Rani Chennamma’s rebellion against the British East India Company, several social groups across India have organised a national campaign, Naanoo Rani Chennamma (I am Rani Chennamma too) on 21st February, 2024.
- The Campaign is trying to invoke Chennamma’s memory to show that women can be the vanguards of safeguarding dignity and justice. Rani Chennamma’s bravery is an inspiration to the women of the country.
About Rani Chennamma:
- Chenamma was born on 23rd October 1778, in Kagati, a small village in present-day Belagavi district in Karnataka.
- She became the queen of Kittur on her marriage to Shivalinga Rudra Sarja, of the Desai family of Kittur.
- Shivalinga Rudra Sarja did not have children and therefore adopted Shivalingappa who was renamed as Mallasarja.
After the death of Sivalinga Rudra Sarja, Chennamma started ruling the kingdom in the name of the minor prince.
Under the doctrine of Lapse, any princely state without a natural heir would collapse and would be annexed by the Company.
John Thackery, the British official at Dharwad, launched an attack on Kittur in October 1824. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
Battle against British:
- In 1824, a fleet of 20,000 British soldiers was positioned on the foothills of the Kittur fort as they attempted to invade the former princely state of Karnataka.
- Trained in martial arts and military tactics, she was a formidable leader.
- She led her army into battle, employing guerrilla warfare tactics to surprise the British forces.
- The conflict lasted several days, but ultimately, the British prevailed due to their superior firepower.
- Despite her capture and imprisonment in Bailhongal Fort (Belagavi, Karnataka), Rani Chennamma’s spirit remained unbroken. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
- Her rebellion inspired countless others to stand up against British rule. She became a symbol of courage and defiance.
- In 2007, the Indian government honoured her by issuing a postage stamp in her name. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
- Several Kannada lavanis or folk songs are recited that fondly remember Rani Chennamma as a protector and guardian.
- Hence, option (d) is correct.
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements about Lucknow pact is/are correct?
- The pact led to Congress and the Muslim League joining forces for the first time to pursue common political demands.
- Tilak and Annie Besant were instrumental in initiating the shift in the Muslim League’s stance towards a more anti-imperialist position.
- The pact was achieved during the presidency of Ambika Charan Majumdar, signalling a reconciliation between different factions within Congress.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: c
Explanation:
- The Lucknow Pact, formulated in 1916, represented the first time that the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League came together to pursue common political demands. This collaboration marked a significant step towards political unity in India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- While Tilak and Annie Besant played pivotal roles in promoting unity within Congress, the shift in the Muslim League’s stance toward a more anti-imperialist position was influenced by other factors. Younger members of the Muslim League, like Muhammad Ali Jinnah, took a more progressive and nationalist approach, leading to a collaborative effort between Congress and the Muslim League at the Lucknow Pact. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
- The Lucknow Pact was reached in 1916 during Ambika Charan Majumdar’s presidency at the Lucknow session of the Congress, signifying a reconciliation between the moderates and the extremists. The unity within Congress and the agreement with the Muslim League marked a pivotal moment in the Indian nationalist movement. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
- Hence, option(c) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: c
Explanation:
- The Lucknow Pact, formulated in 1916, represented the first time that the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League came together to pursue common political demands. This collaboration marked a significant step towards political unity in India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- While Tilak and Annie Besant played pivotal roles in promoting unity within Congress, the shift in the Muslim League’s stance toward a more anti-imperialist position was influenced by other factors. Younger members of the Muslim League, like Muhammad Ali Jinnah, took a more progressive and nationalist approach, leading to a collaborative effort between Congress and the Muslim League at the Lucknow Pact. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
- The Lucknow Pact was reached in 1916 during Ambika Charan Majumdar’s presidency at the Lucknow session of the Congress, signifying a reconciliation between the moderates and the extremists. The unity within Congress and the agreement with the Muslim League marked a pivotal moment in the Indian nationalist movement. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
- Hence, option(c) is correct.
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements accurately reflect the reasons behind the decline of the Home Rule League Movement?
- Ineffective organization and lack of strong leadership were significant reasons for the movement’s decline.
- The Montagu-Chelmsford reforms caused divisions among nationalists, leading to a drop in support for the Home Rule League Movement.
- Growing appeal of Gandhi’s new approach to the freedom struggle weakened the Home Rule League Movement.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Answer: c
Explanation:
- The Home Rule agitation was short-lived. It had dwindled by 1919.
- The Home Rule League Movement faced organizational challenges, and the absence of strong leadership contributed to its decline. After Annie Besant’s arrest and Tilak’s travel abroad, the movement lacked effective leadership, impacting its effectiveness.
- Tilak was forced to travel abroad in September 1918 in connection with a libel case against Valentine Chirol, whose book, Indian Unrest, blamed Tilak for the agitational politics that had developed in India. With Besant unable to provide positive leadership and Tilak away in England, the movement was left without a leader. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- The Montagu-Chelmsford reforms, announced in 1918, introduced a division among nationalists. These reforms led to a decrease in support for the Home Rule League Movement, as they offered a path toward greater self-government under British rule, reducing the momentum for more radical approaches. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Communal riots during 1917-18 disrupted the cohesion of the Home rule movement, while Gandhi’s emerging approach to the freedom struggle gained popularity, diverting attention from the Home Rule League Movement. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: c
Explanation:
- The Home Rule agitation was short-lived. It had dwindled by 1919.
- The Home Rule League Movement faced organizational challenges, and the absence of strong leadership contributed to its decline. After Annie Besant’s arrest and Tilak’s travel abroad, the movement lacked effective leadership, impacting its effectiveness.
- Tilak was forced to travel abroad in September 1918 in connection with a libel case against Valentine Chirol, whose book, Indian Unrest, blamed Tilak for the agitational politics that had developed in India. With Besant unable to provide positive leadership and Tilak away in England, the movement was left without a leader. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- The Montagu-Chelmsford reforms, announced in 1918, introduced a division among nationalists. These reforms led to a decrease in support for the Home Rule League Movement, as they offered a path toward greater self-government under British rule, reducing the momentum for more radical approaches. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Communal riots during 1917-18 disrupted the cohesion of the Home rule movement, while Gandhi’s emerging approach to the freedom struggle gained popularity, diverting attention from the Home Rule League Movement. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following individuals were key figures in the Vaikom Satyagraha?
- P. Kesava Menon
- Erode Venkatappa Ramasamy
- Kelappan
- Mahatma Gandhi
Select the correct using the code given below:
Correct
Answer: d
Explanation:
- Recently, India commemorated the centenary of Vaikom satyagraha, a pivotal movement in India’s history that challenged untouchability and caste oppression.
- Vaikom Satyagraha, a nonviolent agitation, unfolded in Vaikom within the princely state of Travancore, Kerala, a century ago spanning from 30th March 1924 to 23rd November 1925.
- The movement was triggered by the prohibition of people from oppressed classes, especially Ezhavas, from walking on the roads surrounding the Vaikom Mahadeva temple.
- Efforts were made to negotiate with authorities, including Maharani Regent of Travancore, to open temple roads.
- It was the first among the temple entry movements in India, setting the stage for similar movements across the country.
- It emerged amidst the growing nationalist movement and aimed to foreground social reform alongside political aspirations.
- It was led by visionary leaders like Ezhava leader T K Madhavan, K.P. Kesava Menon, and K. Kelappan.
- Erode Venkatappa Ramasamy, revered as Periyar or Thanthai Periyar, played a crucial role, mobilising volunteers, delivering speeches, and enduring imprisonment, earning the title ‘Vaikom Veerar’.
- The movement gained more power when Mahatma Gandhi reached Vaikom in March 1925 and held discussions with leaders of various caste groups.
- The Vaikom Satyagraha led to significant reforms, including the opening of three out of four roads surrounding the temple to people of all castes.
- In November 1936, the Maharaja of Travancore signed the historic Temple Entry Proclamation, which removed the age-old ban on the entry of marginalised castes into the temples of Travancore.
- Hence, option (d) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: d
Explanation:
- Recently, India commemorated the centenary of Vaikom satyagraha, a pivotal movement in India’s history that challenged untouchability and caste oppression.
- Vaikom Satyagraha, a nonviolent agitation, unfolded in Vaikom within the princely state of Travancore, Kerala, a century ago spanning from 30th March 1924 to 23rd November 1925.
- The movement was triggered by the prohibition of people from oppressed classes, especially Ezhavas, from walking on the roads surrounding the Vaikom Mahadeva temple.
- Efforts were made to negotiate with authorities, including Maharani Regent of Travancore, to open temple roads.
- It was the first among the temple entry movements in India, setting the stage for similar movements across the country.
- It emerged amidst the growing nationalist movement and aimed to foreground social reform alongside political aspirations.
- It was led by visionary leaders like Ezhava leader T K Madhavan, K.P. Kesava Menon, and K. Kelappan.
- Erode Venkatappa Ramasamy, revered as Periyar or Thanthai Periyar, played a crucial role, mobilising volunteers, delivering speeches, and enduring imprisonment, earning the title ‘Vaikom Veerar’.
- The movement gained more power when Mahatma Gandhi reached Vaikom in March 1925 and held discussions with leaders of various caste groups.
- The Vaikom Satyagraha led to significant reforms, including the opening of three out of four roads surrounding the temple to people of all castes.
- In November 1936, the Maharaja of Travancore signed the historic Temple Entry Proclamation, which removed the age-old ban on the entry of marginalised castes into the temples of Travancore.
- Hence, option (d) is correct.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements are true about the Sabarmati Ashram?
- The Sabarmati Ashram was established by Mahatma Gandhi in 1917, serving as a base for his socio-political activities.
- It was the starting point for the Dandi March, launched by Gandhi in 1930 as a protest against the British salt tax.
- The Sabarmati Ashram played a central role in the Champaran Satyagraha and Kheda Satyagraha.
- Gandhi launched the Quit India Movement from the Sabarmati Ashram in 1942.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Answer: a
Explanation:
- Recently, on the 94th anniversary of the Dandi March, the Prime Minister of India laid the foundation for the Sabarmati Ashram Redevelopment Project in Ahmedabad.
- The Sabarmati Ashram Redevelopment Project is Rs 1,200 crore initiative to restore, conserve, and rebuild the original Sabarmati Ashram founded by Mahatma Gandhi.
- Founded in 1917 by Mahatma Gandhi, the Sabarmati Ashram is situated on the western bank of the Sabarmati River, near the village of Juna Vadaj in Ahmedabad. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Gandhi set up five settlements during his lifetime, two in South Africa (Phoenix Settlement in Natal, and Tolstoy Farm outside Johannesburg), and three in India.
- Gandhi’s first Ashram in India was established in the Kochrab area of Ahmedabad in 1915, and the others are Sabarmati Ashram (Ahmedabad), and Sevagram Ashram (in Wardha).
- The ashram served as a base for Gandhi’s socio-political activities and experiments with truth and non-violence.
- It witnessed the launch of several seminal movements, including the Dandi March in 1930. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- Apart from the Dandi March, Gandhiji also launched the Champaran Satyagraha (1917), the Ahmedabad mills strike and Kheda Satyagraha (1918), the Khadi movement (1918), the Rowlatt Act and Khilafat Movements (1919), and the Non-Cooperation movement (1920) while living in Sabarmati. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
- On 12 March 1930 he vowed that he would not return to the Ashram until India won independence. Although this was won on 15 August 1947, when India was declared a free nation, Gandhi was assassinated in January 1948 and never returned.
- Gandhi launched the Quit India Movement in 1942, but it wasn’t from the Sabarmati Ashram. The Quit India Movement was initiated from Gowalia Tank Maidan in Bombay. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: a
Explanation:
- Recently, on the 94th anniversary of the Dandi March, the Prime Minister of India laid the foundation for the Sabarmati Ashram Redevelopment Project in Ahmedabad.
- The Sabarmati Ashram Redevelopment Project is Rs 1,200 crore initiative to restore, conserve, and rebuild the original Sabarmati Ashram founded by Mahatma Gandhi.
- Founded in 1917 by Mahatma Gandhi, the Sabarmati Ashram is situated on the western bank of the Sabarmati River, near the village of Juna Vadaj in Ahmedabad. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Gandhi set up five settlements during his lifetime, two in South Africa (Phoenix Settlement in Natal, and Tolstoy Farm outside Johannesburg), and three in India.
- Gandhi’s first Ashram in India was established in the Kochrab area of Ahmedabad in 1915, and the others are Sabarmati Ashram (Ahmedabad), and Sevagram Ashram (in Wardha).
- The ashram served as a base for Gandhi’s socio-political activities and experiments with truth and non-violence.
- It witnessed the launch of several seminal movements, including the Dandi March in 1930. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- Apart from the Dandi March, Gandhiji also launched the Champaran Satyagraha (1917), the Ahmedabad mills strike and Kheda Satyagraha (1918), the Khadi movement (1918), the Rowlatt Act and Khilafat Movements (1919), and the Non-Cooperation movement (1920) while living in Sabarmati. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
- On 12 March 1930 he vowed that he would not return to the Ashram until India won independence. Although this was won on 15 August 1947, when India was declared a free nation, Gandhi was assassinated in January 1948 and never returned.
- Gandhi launched the Quit India Movement in 1942, but it wasn’t from the Sabarmati Ashram. The Quit India Movement was initiated from Gowalia Tank Maidan in Bombay. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsThe All India Kisan Sabha, founded in 1936, had a major role in representing the peasants’ interests. What was its central demand?
Correct
Answer: a
Explanation:
All India Kisan Sabha:
- Year:1936
- Formed at Indian National Congress (INC) Lucknow Session
- Founder: Swami Sahajananda Saraswati
- Formation of All India Kisan Sabha:In Bihar, Swami Sahajanand started a movement to protect the occupancy rights of the tenants, and formed Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha in 1929.
- In Andhra,G. Rangaalso mobilised the peasants and formed a Kisan Sabha. The Kisan Sabha movement spread to other regions of the country also, and it raised the demand for the abolition of zamindari.
- At the Congress session in Lucknow in 1936, the All India Kisan Sabhawas formed, with Sahajanand as its first president.
- Manifesto:It issued the Kisan manifesto, which called for the abolition of zamindari and occupancy rights for all tenants.
- After the Elections of 1937: The Congress ministries undertook certain measures to:
- reduce the debt burdens by fixing interest rates in all provinces ruled by it, enhancements of rent were checked,
- In UP, cultivators were given the status of occupancy tenants. In Bihar, bakhast lands were partly restored to tenants; in Maharashtra, the khoti tenants of landholders were given some rights.
- Grazing fees on the forest lands were abolished.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: a
Explanation:
All India Kisan Sabha:
- Year:1936
- Formed at Indian National Congress (INC) Lucknow Session
- Founder: Swami Sahajananda Saraswati
- Formation of All India Kisan Sabha:In Bihar, Swami Sahajanand started a movement to protect the occupancy rights of the tenants, and formed Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha in 1929.
- In Andhra,G. Rangaalso mobilised the peasants and formed a Kisan Sabha. The Kisan Sabha movement spread to other regions of the country also, and it raised the demand for the abolition of zamindari.
- At the Congress session in Lucknow in 1936, the All India Kisan Sabhawas formed, with Sahajanand as its first president.
- Manifesto:It issued the Kisan manifesto, which called for the abolition of zamindari and occupancy rights for all tenants.
- After the Elections of 1937: The Congress ministries undertook certain measures to:
- reduce the debt burdens by fixing interest rates in all provinces ruled by it, enhancements of rent were checked,
- In UP, cultivators were given the status of occupancy tenants. In Bihar, bakhast lands were partly restored to tenants; in Maharashtra, the khoti tenants of landholders were given some rights.
- Grazing fees on the forest lands were abolished.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsWho was the leader of the Narkelberia Uprising against landlords and British Indigo planters?
Correct
Answer: b
Explanation:
- Narkelberia Uprising (1782-1831).The uprising was led by Titu Mir/Mir Nithar Ali. It occurred in West Bengal.
- The rebellion was against landlords, mainly Hindu, who imposed a beard-tax on the Faraizis, and British indigo planters.
- The rebellion merged into the Wahabi movement.
- Hence, option (b) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: b
Explanation:
- Narkelberia Uprising (1782-1831).The uprising was led by Titu Mir/Mir Nithar Ali. It occurred in West Bengal.
- The rebellion was against landlords, mainly Hindu, who imposed a beard-tax on the Faraizis, and British indigo planters.
- The rebellion merged into the Wahabi movement.
- Hence, option (b) is correct.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsWhich tribal movement emerged among the Oraon tribes of Chotanagpur, Jharkhand, during the early 20th century?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
- Tana Bhagat movement (1914-1920) is a movement that emerged among the Oraon tribes of Chotanagpur, Jharkhand.
- The leader of the Tana Bhagat movement was called Jatra Bhagat
- Reasons:
- The economic and cultural exploitation of the Oraon tribes.
- For them, Swaraj meant freedom from British rule and freedom from the oppression of the ‘Dikkus’, money-lenders, zamindars and feudal overlords.
- Also, the leaders of this movement wanted to stop the evil practices among the tribes, like the worship of ghosts and spirits etc.
- There was an active rebellion against unfair landlords who exploited them.
- Some of the members refused to pay rent to their landlords and ceased to cultivate their lands.
- The movement was influenced by Mahatma Gandhi and his idea of non-violence.
- Hence, option (b) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
- Tana Bhagat movement (1914-1920) is a movement that emerged among the Oraon tribes of Chotanagpur, Jharkhand.
- The leader of the Tana Bhagat movement was called Jatra Bhagat
- Reasons:
- The economic and cultural exploitation of the Oraon tribes.
- For them, Swaraj meant freedom from British rule and freedom from the oppression of the ‘Dikkus’, money-lenders, zamindars and feudal overlords.
- Also, the leaders of this movement wanted to stop the evil practices among the tribes, like the worship of ghosts and spirits etc.
- There was an active rebellion against unfair landlords who exploited them.
- Some of the members refused to pay rent to their landlords and ceased to cultivate their lands.
- The movement was influenced by Mahatma Gandhi and his idea of non-violence.
- Hence, option (b) is correct.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsWhat was the primary focus of Gandhi’s towards capitalists-labourers relations during the Indian working-class movement?
Correct
Answer: b
Explanation:
- Gandhi’s approach to capital-labor relations was distinct from other labor movements that focused on strikes and confrontational tactics.
- His emphasis was on resolving disputes through peaceful means and fostering harmonious relationships between labor and capital.
- Rather than encouraging strikes or class conflict, Gandhi advocated for amicable settlements between workers and industrialists, promoting social and cultural improvements.
- Hence, option (b) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: b
Explanation:
- Gandhi’s approach to capital-labor relations was distinct from other labor movements that focused on strikes and confrontational tactics.
- His emphasis was on resolving disputes through peaceful means and fostering harmonious relationships between labor and capital.
- Rather than encouraging strikes or class conflict, Gandhi advocated for amicable settlements between workers and industrialists, promoting social and cultural improvements.
- Hence, option (b) is correct.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsWho established a workingmen’s club and started the newspaper “Bharat Shramjeevi” to improve the economic conditions of workers in India?
Correct
Answer: b
Explanation:
- Sasipada Banerjea was an influential social reformer in 19th-century India, who played a pivotal role in advocating for workers’ rights and improving their economic conditions.
- In 1870, he founded a workingmen’s club and launched the newspaper “Bharat Shramjeevi” (meaning “Indian Worker”).
- The club was a pioneering effort to provide workers with a platform for education, skill development, and community support.
- Through his newspaper, Banerjea raised awareness about the harsh working conditions, low wages, and other challenges faced by the working class. His efforts contributed to the early development of worker’s movements in India, emphasizing social reform and better working conditions.
- Hence, option (b) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: b
Explanation:
- Sasipada Banerjea was an influential social reformer in 19th-century India, who played a pivotal role in advocating for workers’ rights and improving their economic conditions.
- In 1870, he founded a workingmen’s club and launched the newspaper “Bharat Shramjeevi” (meaning “Indian Worker”).
- The club was a pioneering effort to provide workers with a platform for education, skill development, and community support.
- Through his newspaper, Banerjea raised awareness about the harsh working conditions, low wages, and other challenges faced by the working class. His efforts contributed to the early development of worker’s movements in India, emphasizing social reform and better working conditions.
- Hence, option (b) is correct.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Universal Postal Union
- The Union is the oldest international organization worldwide.
- Any member country of the United Nations can become a member of the UPU.
- The United Nations General Assembly is the supreme authority of the Union.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct: Established in 1874, the Universal Postal Union (UPU), with its headquarters in the Swiss capital Berne, is the second oldest international organization worldwide.
With its 192 member countries, the UPU is the primary forum for cooperation between postal sector players. It helps to ensure a truly universal network of up-to-date products and services.
Statement 2 is correct: Any member country of the United Nations may become a member of the UPU.
Statement 3 is not correct: Any non-member country of the United Nations may become a UPU member provided that its request is approved by at least two-thirds of the member countries of the UPU. The UPU has now 192 member countries.
Congress is the supreme authority of the Universal Postal Union (UPU) and meets every four years.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct: Established in 1874, the Universal Postal Union (UPU), with its headquarters in the Swiss capital Berne, is the second oldest international organization worldwide.
With its 192 member countries, the UPU is the primary forum for cooperation between postal sector players. It helps to ensure a truly universal network of up-to-date products and services.
Statement 2 is correct: Any member country of the United Nations may become a member of the UPU.
Statement 3 is not correct: Any non-member country of the United Nations may become a UPU member provided that its request is approved by at least two-thirds of the member countries of the UPU. The UPU has now 192 member countries.
Congress is the supreme authority of the Universal Postal Union (UPU) and meets every four years.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- Sedition was used to curb political dissent during the Indian National Movement.
- Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code dealt with the offense of sedition.
- The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita Bill, 2023 does not cover the offence of sedition.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Although Thomas Macaulay, who drafted the Indian Penal Code, had included the law on sedition, it was not added in the code enacted in 1860.
Statement 1 is correct: The provision was extensively used to curb political dissent during the Independence movement.
Several pre-independence cases involving Section 124A of the IPC are against celebrated freedom fighters, including Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Annie Besant, Shaukat and Mohammad Ali, Maulana Azad and Mahatma Gandhi.
Statement 2 is correct: Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) deals with the offence of sedition.
The Bharatiya Sanhita Suraksha Bill, 2023 in Lok Sabha to replace the Indian Penal Code, Code of Criminal Procedure and Indian Evidence Act, and referred the laws to a standing committee.
Statement 3 is not correct: Section 150 of The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita Bill, 2023 deals with the offence of sedition. However, it does not use the word sedition but describes the offence as “endangering sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Although Thomas Macaulay, who drafted the Indian Penal Code, had included the law on sedition, it was not added in the code enacted in 1860.
Statement 1 is correct: The provision was extensively used to curb political dissent during the Independence movement.
Several pre-independence cases involving Section 124A of the IPC are against celebrated freedom fighters, including Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Annie Besant, Shaukat and Mohammad Ali, Maulana Azad and Mahatma Gandhi.
Statement 2 is correct: Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) deals with the offence of sedition.
The Bharatiya Sanhita Suraksha Bill, 2023 in Lok Sabha to replace the Indian Penal Code, Code of Criminal Procedure and Indian Evidence Act, and referred the laws to a standing committee.
Statement 3 is not correct: Section 150 of The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita Bill, 2023 deals with the offence of sedition. However, it does not use the word sedition but describes the offence as “endangering sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Laccase Enzymes:
- These enzymes are generated by a group of fungi.
- They can degrade a variety of hazardous organic dye molecules.
- They provide a natural solution to curb the environmental degradation.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Option (c) is correct: An enzyme called laccase generated by a group of fungi has been found capable of degrading a variety of hazardous organic dye molecules that are regularly drained into waterbodies after dying clothes in the textile industry.
This observed characteristic which the scientists termed substrate promiscuity can have deep implications in designing enzyme-coated cassettes for treating heavily dye-polluted water through a natural solution to make the environment greener.
Laccase was known for its capacity to degrade various organic molecules.
There is a scope in using it to develop a technology to treat/degrade the dye effluents emanating from textile industries.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
Option (c) is correct: An enzyme called laccase generated by a group of fungi has been found capable of degrading a variety of hazardous organic dye molecules that are regularly drained into waterbodies after dying clothes in the textile industry.
This observed characteristic which the scientists termed substrate promiscuity can have deep implications in designing enzyme-coated cassettes for treating heavily dye-polluted water through a natural solution to make the environment greener.
Laccase was known for its capacity to degrade various organic molecules.
There is a scope in using it to develop a technology to treat/degrade the dye effluents emanating from textile industries.
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Katarniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary:
- It is situated in the Upper Gangetic plain falling in the Terai region.
- It has a mosaic of Sal and Teak forests with numerous swamps and wetlands.
- It is a part of the Sariska Tiger Reserve having Gangetic Dolphins in its habitat.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Katarniya Ghat Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in the Upper Gangetic plain falling in the Terai of Bahraich district of Uttar Pradesh, India.
The Katarniya Ghat Forest provides strategic connectivity between tiger habitats of Dudhwa and Kishanpur in India and Nepal.
Statement 2 is correct: The sanctuary has a mosaic of Sal and Teak forests, lush grasslands, numerous swamps and wetlands.
It is home to a number of endangered species including gharial, tiger, rhino, Gangetic dolphin, Swamp deer, Hispid hare, Bengal florican, the White-backed and Long-billed vultures.
Statement 3 is not correct: Katarniya Ghat Wild life Sanctuary is part of Dudhwa Tiger Reserve Lakhimpur kheri. The total area of Katarniya Ghat Wildlife Sanctuary is 400.09 sq.km. which is a part of the core area of Dudhwa Tiger reserve.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Katarniya Ghat Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in the Upper Gangetic plain falling in the Terai of Bahraich district of Uttar Pradesh, India.
The Katarniya Ghat Forest provides strategic connectivity between tiger habitats of Dudhwa and Kishanpur in India and Nepal.
Statement 2 is correct: The sanctuary has a mosaic of Sal and Teak forests, lush grasslands, numerous swamps and wetlands.
It is home to a number of endangered species including gharial, tiger, rhino, Gangetic dolphin, Swamp deer, Hispid hare, Bengal florican, the White-backed and Long-billed vultures.
Statement 3 is not correct: Katarniya Ghat Wild life Sanctuary is part of Dudhwa Tiger Reserve Lakhimpur kheri. The total area of Katarniya Ghat Wildlife Sanctuary is 400.09 sq.km. which is a part of the core area of Dudhwa Tiger reserve.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the System of Rice Intensification:
- It involves cultivating rice with intensive chemical fertilizers.
- Under the system, fields are not flooded but kept moist during vegetative phase.
- Due to its high expenditure, it is not beneficial for small and marginal farmers.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct: The System of Rice Intensification involves cultivating rice with as much organic manure as possible, starting with young seedlings planted singly at wider spacing in a square pattern.
Statement 2 is correct: Under SRI paddy fields are not flooded but kept moist during vegetative phase. Later only one inch water is maintained. SRI requires only about half as much water as normally applied in irrigated rice.
Statement 3 is not correct: SRI Paddy Cultivation requires less water, involves less expenditure and gives more yields. Thus it is beneficial for small and marginal farmers. SRI was first developed in Madagascar during 1980’s.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct: The System of Rice Intensification involves cultivating rice with as much organic manure as possible, starting with young seedlings planted singly at wider spacing in a square pattern.
Statement 2 is correct: Under SRI paddy fields are not flooded but kept moist during vegetative phase. Later only one inch water is maintained. SRI requires only about half as much water as normally applied in irrigated rice.
Statement 3 is not correct: SRI Paddy Cultivation requires less water, involves less expenditure and gives more yields. Thus it is beneficial for small and marginal farmers. SRI was first developed in Madagascar during 1980’s.
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsConsider the following rivers:
- Purna
- Kabini
- Manjra
- Hemavathi
- Kolar
How many of the above are tributaries of River Kaveri?
Correct
Solution: A
About River Kaveri
The Kaveri River is a perennial, monsoon rain-fed river. It rises at Talakaveri (Brahmagiri Hill) located in the Kodagu district in Karnataka.
- Drainage Basin: Karnataka and Tamil Nadu, Bay of Bengal (south of Cuddalore)
- Tributaries: Arkavathi, Hemavathi, Lakshmana Theertha, Shimsa, Kabini, Harangi
- Purna River: The Purna River is a major tributary of the Tapti River, flowing through the states of Maharashtra and Gujarat in India. It is not connected to the Kaveri River system.
- Kabini River: The Kabini River, also known as Kapila, is a significant tributary of the River Kaveri. It originates in the Western Ghats of Kerala and flows eastward into Karnataka, joining the Kaveri River at Tirumakudalu Narasipura. This makes it a key tributary of the Kaveri River.
- Manjra River: The Manjra River is a tributary of the Godavari River. It originates in the Balaghat range in Karnataka and flows through Maharashtra and Telangana before joining the Godavari. Thus, it is not a tributary of the Kaveri River.
- Hemavathi River: The Hemavathi River is a major tributary of the Kaveri River. It originates in the Western Ghats at Chikmagalur district of Karnataka and joins the Kaveri River near Krishna Raja Sagara. This connection confirms it as a tributary of the Kaveri River.
- Kolar River: The Kolar River in central India is a tributary of the Narmada River, flowing through Madhya Pradesh. It should not be confused with any minor rivers in Karnataka that might have similar names but are unrelated to the River Kaveri system.
Incorrect
Solution: A
About River Kaveri
The Kaveri River is a perennial, monsoon rain-fed river. It rises at Talakaveri (Brahmagiri Hill) located in the Kodagu district in Karnataka.
- Drainage Basin: Karnataka and Tamil Nadu, Bay of Bengal (south of Cuddalore)
- Tributaries: Arkavathi, Hemavathi, Lakshmana Theertha, Shimsa, Kabini, Harangi
- Purna River: The Purna River is a major tributary of the Tapti River, flowing through the states of Maharashtra and Gujarat in India. It is not connected to the Kaveri River system.
- Kabini River: The Kabini River, also known as Kapila, is a significant tributary of the River Kaveri. It originates in the Western Ghats of Kerala and flows eastward into Karnataka, joining the Kaveri River at Tirumakudalu Narasipura. This makes it a key tributary of the Kaveri River.
- Manjra River: The Manjra River is a tributary of the Godavari River. It originates in the Balaghat range in Karnataka and flows through Maharashtra and Telangana before joining the Godavari. Thus, it is not a tributary of the Kaveri River.
- Hemavathi River: The Hemavathi River is a major tributary of the Kaveri River. It originates in the Western Ghats at Chikmagalur district of Karnataka and joins the Kaveri River near Krishna Raja Sagara. This connection confirms it as a tributary of the Kaveri River.
- Kolar River: The Kolar River in central India is a tributary of the Narmada River, flowing through Madhya Pradesh. It should not be confused with any minor rivers in Karnataka that might have similar names but are unrelated to the River Kaveri system.
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsWhich river does the Imphal River join as a tributary?
Correct
Solution: B
The Imphal River, located in the state of Manipur, flows primarily through the Imphal Valley before joining another river.
The Imphal River eventually joins the Barak River. After flowing through Manipur, it exits the state and enters the Barak Valley in Assam, where it meets the Barak River. The Barak River itself is a significant river in northeastern India and eventually leads into Bangladesh.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The Imphal River, located in the state of Manipur, flows primarily through the Imphal Valley before joining another river.
The Imphal River eventually joins the Barak River. After flowing through Manipur, it exits the state and enters the Barak Valley in Assam, where it meets the Barak River. The Barak River itself is a significant river in northeastern India and eventually leads into Bangladesh.
-
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsWhat is ‘Zosurabalpin,’ as mentioned in recent news?
Correct
Solution: C
Researchers have identified a new class of antibiotics with the potential to tackle a drug-resistant bacterium, Acinetobacter baumannii. Zosurabalpin was found to be effective against CRAB (carbapenem-resistant Acinetobacter baumannii)-induced pneumonia and sepsis in mouse models.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Researchers have identified a new class of antibiotics with the potential to tackle a drug-resistant bacterium, Acinetobacter baumannii. Zosurabalpin was found to be effective against CRAB (carbapenem-resistant Acinetobacter baumannii)-induced pneumonia and sepsis in mouse models.
-
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the lasers:
- Data transmission via lasers relies on radio waves.
- Due to their concentrated energy, laser beams can exceed the speed of light.
- Atmospheric water vapor can disrupt laser communication.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Lasers do not use radio waves for data transmission; instead, they use light waves, specifically in the visible, infrared, or ultraviolet spectrum. Lasers transmit information through modulated light, not through the radio frequency spectrum.
Laser beams, like all forms of light, travel at the speed of light in a vacuum, which is a constant approximately equal to 299,792 kilometers per second (or about 186,282 miles per second). No object or information can exceed the speed of light in a vacuum according to the principles of Einstein’s theory of relativity.
Hence, statement 1 and statement 2 are incorrect.
Laser communication, particularly when conducted through the atmosphere, can be affected by various environmental factors including water vapor. Water vapor can absorb or scatter the light beam, reducing the effectiveness of the laser transmission and potentially causing signal loss or degradation.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Lasers do not use radio waves for data transmission; instead, they use light waves, specifically in the visible, infrared, or ultraviolet spectrum. Lasers transmit information through modulated light, not through the radio frequency spectrum.
Laser beams, like all forms of light, travel at the speed of light in a vacuum, which is a constant approximately equal to 299,792 kilometers per second (or about 186,282 miles per second). No object or information can exceed the speed of light in a vacuum according to the principles of Einstein’s theory of relativity.
Hence, statement 1 and statement 2 are incorrect.
Laser communication, particularly when conducted through the atmosphere, can be affected by various environmental factors including water vapor. Water vapor can absorb or scatter the light beam, reducing the effectiveness of the laser transmission and potentially causing signal loss or degradation.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Dynamic Wireless Charging Technology, consider the following statements:
- Dynamic wireless charging enables devices to be charged while they are moving or without making direct contact with a charging station.
- The method depends on the utilization of electromagnetic fields to transmit power across limited distances.
- The deployment of dynamic wireless charging systems on a large scale in public areas is hindered by both logistical and safety concerns
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
All statements are correct.
Dynamic Wireless Charging Technology offers an innovative way to charge devices on the go, particularly relevant in the context of electric vehicles and mobile devices.
This technology indeed allows devices, especially electric vehicles, to be charged while in motion or parked without direct physical connection to a power source. This is achieved through coils embedded in the road and a receiver in the vehicle, enabling charging via electromagnetic induction or resonance while eliminating the need for stationary charging posts.
Dynamic wireless charging relies on electromagnetic fields generated by alternating currents in coils to transfer energy wirelessly. The power transfer efficiency and distance are governed by the design of the coils and the frequency of the electromagnetic field, usually effective only over short distances due to energy dispersion and the need for close alignment between the charger and the device.
Large-scale deployment faces several hurdles:
- Logistical Challenges: These include the high costs of infrastructure development, the need for extensive modifications to existing roads and spaces, and the technical complexity of installing and maintaining an extensive network of charging systems.
- Safety Concerns: There are issues related to potential electromagnetic interference with other devices, safety standards for public exposure to electromagnetic fields, and the physical safety of embedding active electrical elements in publicly accessible structures.
Incorrect
Solution: C
All statements are correct.
Dynamic Wireless Charging Technology offers an innovative way to charge devices on the go, particularly relevant in the context of electric vehicles and mobile devices.
This technology indeed allows devices, especially electric vehicles, to be charged while in motion or parked without direct physical connection to a power source. This is achieved through coils embedded in the road and a receiver in the vehicle, enabling charging via electromagnetic induction or resonance while eliminating the need for stationary charging posts.
Dynamic wireless charging relies on electromagnetic fields generated by alternating currents in coils to transfer energy wirelessly. The power transfer efficiency and distance are governed by the design of the coils and the frequency of the electromagnetic field, usually effective only over short distances due to energy dispersion and the need for close alignment between the charger and the device.
Large-scale deployment faces several hurdles:
- Logistical Challenges: These include the high costs of infrastructure development, the need for extensive modifications to existing roads and spaces, and the technical complexity of installing and maintaining an extensive network of charging systems.
- Safety Concerns: There are issues related to potential electromagnetic interference with other devices, safety standards for public exposure to electromagnetic fields, and the physical safety of embedding active electrical elements in publicly accessible structures.
-
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements.
- Salt is under the Union List of the 7th schedule of the constitution.
- India is the largest producer of salt, followed by US and China.
- Tamil Nadu accounts for almost 80% of India’s salt production.
- Most of the salt in India comes from mineral rock sources.
How many of the above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: a)
Justification: Salt is under the Union List of the 7th schedule
India is the world’s third-largest producer of salt, after US and China.
Salt is mainly produced through a solar-evaporation process of seawater.
Nodal Agency: Salt Commissioner’s Organisation (an attached Office under the Ministry of Commerce & Industry)
Occupational Health hazards related to salt: Chronic dermatitis (skin ulcers), vision loss
States: Gujarat accounts for almost 80% of the country’s production, followed by Tamil Nadu, Rajasthan (through mining), Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha and Himachal Pradesh (through mining).
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Justification: Salt is under the Union List of the 7th schedule
India is the world’s third-largest producer of salt, after US and China.
Salt is mainly produced through a solar-evaporation process of seawater.
Nodal Agency: Salt Commissioner’s Organisation (an attached Office under the Ministry of Commerce & Industry)
Occupational Health hazards related to salt: Chronic dermatitis (skin ulcers), vision loss
States: Gujarat accounts for almost 80% of the country’s production, followed by Tamil Nadu, Rajasthan (through mining), Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha and Himachal Pradesh (through mining).
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsExchange-traded currency derivatives (ETCD) market is regulated under the:
Correct
Solution: b)
Justification: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has postponed the implementation of its new norms for the exchange-traded currency derivatives (ETCD) market.
This decision follows concerns raised by market participants regarding participation in the ETCD market, which led to increased volatility in the forex market.
The new norms, aimed to allow users to take positions in the foreign exchange derivatives market without needing to establish the existence of underlying exposure, up to a single limit of $100 million equivalent across all currency pairs involving the rupee.
However, the RBI emphasized that the regulatory framework for ETCDs remains consistent, guided by the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999.
Users are required to ensure compliance with the requirement of having underlying exposure, and the limit for taking positions was subsequently amended to a single limit of $100 million combined across all exchanges.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Justification: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has postponed the implementation of its new norms for the exchange-traded currency derivatives (ETCD) market.
This decision follows concerns raised by market participants regarding participation in the ETCD market, which led to increased volatility in the forex market.
The new norms, aimed to allow users to take positions in the foreign exchange derivatives market without needing to establish the existence of underlying exposure, up to a single limit of $100 million equivalent across all currency pairs involving the rupee.
However, the RBI emphasized that the regulatory framework for ETCDs remains consistent, guided by the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999.
Users are required to ensure compliance with the requirement of having underlying exposure, and the limit for taking positions was subsequently amended to a single limit of $100 million combined across all exchanges.
-
Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements.
Assertion (A): Mulching helps in reducing runoff in farm lands.
Reason (R): Mulching helps create a soil structure that allows rainwater to infiltrate easily.
In the context of the above, which of these is correct?
Correct
Solution: a)
Justification: Mulching involves covering topsoil with plant materials like leaves or straw. It helps create a soil structure that allows rainwater to infiltrate easily, reducing runoff.
Farmers in the Ladakhi village of Phey are defying the odds by successfully growing organic watermelons (a crop typically unsuited for the cold desert region) using Mulching.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Justification: Mulching involves covering topsoil with plant materials like leaves or straw. It helps create a soil structure that allows rainwater to infiltrate easily, reducing runoff.
Farmers in the Ladakhi village of Phey are defying the odds by successfully growing organic watermelons (a crop typically unsuited for the cold desert region) using Mulching.
-
Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements.
- A plankton crash is when a dramatic bloom of plankton in a pond is replaced by very few viable plankton.
- Dead plankton can create large amounts of stable foam on the surface of the pond.
- High iron concentration prevents plankton bloom.
- Surface temperature of water, its salinity, pH, and the level of dissolved oxygen affect the level of plankton bloom.
How many of the above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: c)
Justification: A plankton crash is when a dramatic bloom of plankton in a pond is replaced by very few viable plankton. This can be caused by a lack of nutrients or CO2.
Dead plankton can create large amounts of stable foam on the surface of the pond.
A panel formed by the National Green Tribunal (NGT) investigated the red colouration of the sea in Puducherry and attributed it to a plankton crash.
A specific species of phytoplankton, Noctiluca scintillans, was found to be ruptured, releasing red pigment into the sea.
The panel ruled out algal bloom and contamination from a nearby paper manufacturing unit, stating that the unit’s operations did not coincide with the discolouration incidents.
Instead, the panel identified high iron concentration as a potential factor favouring plankton bloom.
Environmental parameters such as sea surface temperature, salinity, pH, and dissolved oxygen were found conducive to the proliferation of this species.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Justification: A plankton crash is when a dramatic bloom of plankton in a pond is replaced by very few viable plankton. This can be caused by a lack of nutrients or CO2.
Dead plankton can create large amounts of stable foam on the surface of the pond.
A panel formed by the National Green Tribunal (NGT) investigated the red colouration of the sea in Puducherry and attributed it to a plankton crash.
A specific species of phytoplankton, Noctiluca scintillans, was found to be ruptured, releasing red pigment into the sea.
The panel ruled out algal bloom and contamination from a nearby paper manufacturing unit, stating that the unit’s operations did not coincide with the discolouration incidents.
Instead, the panel identified high iron concentration as a potential factor favouring plankton bloom.
Environmental parameters such as sea surface temperature, salinity, pH, and dissolved oxygen were found conducive to the proliferation of this species.
-
Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements.
- Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY) promotes organic farming, facilitating diversification into high-value organic crops.
- Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY) provides flexibility and autonomy to states to prioritize their agriculture and allied sector investments, including diversification efforts.
Which of the above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: c)
Justification: National Food Security Mission (NFSM): Encourages farmers to grow pulses and oilseeds in addition to cereals.
Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchai Yojana (PMKSY): Focuses on improving water use efficiency through micro-irrigation, supporting the cultivation of less water-intensive crops.
Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY): Promotes organic farming, facilitating diversification into high-value organic crops.
Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY): Provides flexibility and autonomy to states to prioritize their agriculture and allied sector investments, including diversification efforts.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Justification: National Food Security Mission (NFSM): Encourages farmers to grow pulses and oilseeds in addition to cereals.
Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchai Yojana (PMKSY): Focuses on improving water use efficiency through micro-irrigation, supporting the cultivation of less water-intensive crops.
Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY): Promotes organic farming, facilitating diversification into high-value organic crops.
Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY): Provides flexibility and autonomy to states to prioritize their agriculture and allied sector investments, including diversification efforts.
-
Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsMalnutrition most commonly occurs between the ages of six months and two years. This happens despite the child’s food requirements being less than that of an older child. Malnutrition is often attributed to poverty, but it has been found that even in households where adults eat adequate quantities of food, more than 50 per cent of children-under-five do not consume enough food. The child’s dependence on someone else to feed him/her is primarily responsible for the malnutrition. Very often the mother is working and the responsibility of feeding the young child is left to an older sibling. It is therefore crucial to increase awareness regarding the child’s food needs and how to satisfy them.
According to the passage, malnutrition in children can be reduced
Correct
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The main idea of the passage is to increase the awareness of the food needs of the child in adults. As option D says just giving the responsibility to adults doesn’t satisfy the nutritious food to children because they need more awareness on that.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The main idea of the passage is to increase the awareness of the food needs of the child in adults. As option D says just giving the responsibility to adults doesn’t satisfy the nutritious food to children because they need more awareness on that.
-
Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsAn increase in the median income of the middle class does not cause average levels of education for the middle class to go up. If they did, then countries with the highest median income of the middle class would also have the highest levels of education for this class. In fact, when the median income of the middle class is made suitably comparable for different countries (accounting for inflation, currency fluctuations and purchasing power parity), there is no such co-relation.
Which of the following can be correctly inferred from the statements above?
Correct
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
In this case, we are told that there is no reliable relationship between the median income and average level of education for the middle class and the increase/decrease in income levels does not have an impact on education levels. This sentiment is highlighted by option 3.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
In this case, we are told that there is no reliable relationship between the median income and average level of education for the middle class and the increase/decrease in income levels does not have an impact on education levels. This sentiment is highlighted by option 3.
-
Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsFind the missing term
441 428 407 370 ? 168
Correct
Option C) 301
Series I : 441 428 407 370 ? 168
Sereis II : –13 –21 –37 ? ?
Series III : 8 16 32 ?
Series IV ×2 ×2 ×2
Clearly, the pattern in series IV is multiplication of 2.
So, the missing term in series III = 32 × 2 = 64
∴ missing term in series II = – 37 – 32 = – 69, – 69 – 64 = – 133
∴ missing term in series I = 370 – 69 = 301
Incorrect
Option C) 301
Series I : 441 428 407 370 ? 168
Sereis II : –13 –21 –37 ? ?
Series III : 8 16 32 ?
Series IV ×2 ×2 ×2
Clearly, the pattern in series IV is multiplication of 2.
So, the missing term in series III = 32 × 2 = 64
∴ missing term in series II = – 37 – 32 = – 69, – 69 – 64 = – 133
∴ missing term in series I = 370 – 69 = 301
-
Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsFind out the wrong number series:
5 , 14 , 52 , 220 , 1125 , 6786
Correct
Answer: A) 52
5*2+4=14
14*3+9=51 —— wrong no
51*4+16=220
220*5 + 25= 1125
Incorrect
Answer: A) 52
5*2+4=14
14*3+9=51 —— wrong no
51*4+16=220
220*5 + 25= 1125
-
Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsGiven a Series 2, 5,12.5, ?, 78.125, 195.3125
Find what number would come in place of the question mark(?).
Correct
Answer : (a) 31.25
Explanation
If you observe the pattern, then you can see
2 × 2.5 = 5
5 × 2.5 = 12.5
12.5 × 2.5 = 31.25
31.25 × 2.5 = 78.125
78.125 × 2.5 = 195.3125
Hence, the correct answer is 31.25
Incorrect
Answer : (a) 31.25
Explanation
If you observe the pattern, then you can see
2 × 2.5 = 5
5 × 2.5 = 12.5
12.5 × 2.5 = 31.25
31.25 × 2.5 = 78.125
78.125 × 2.5 = 195.3125
Hence, the correct answer is 31.25
Join our Official Telegram Channel HERE
Please subscribe to Our podcast channel HERE
Subscribe to our YouTube ChannelHERE
Follow our Twitter Account HERE
Follow our Instagram ID HERE
Follow us on LinkedIn : HERE