INSIGHTS CURRENT Affairs RTM - 2020
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The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements according to the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971,
Civil contempt means:
- Wilful disobedience of any judgment of a court
- Wilful breach of an undertaking given to a court
- lowers authority of any court
Select the correct answer using the code below:
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- What is contempt of court?
- According to the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, contempt of court can either be civil contempt or criminal contempt.
- Civil contempt means wilful disobedience of any judgment, decree, direction, order, writ or other process of a court, or wilful breach of an undertaking given to a court.
- Criminal contempt is attracted by the publication (whether by words, spoken or written, or by signs, or by visible representations, or otherwise) of any matter or the doing of any other act whatsoever which:
- Scandalises or tends to scandalise, or lowers or tends to lower the authority of, any court; or
- Prejudices, or interferes or tends to interfere with, the due course of any judicial proceeding; or
- Interferes or tends to interfere with, or obstructs or tends to obstruct, the administration of justice in any other manner.
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- What is contempt of court?
- According to the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, contempt of court can either be civil contempt or criminal contempt.
- Civil contempt means wilful disobedience of any judgment, decree, direction, order, writ or other process of a court, or wilful breach of an undertaking given to a court.
- Criminal contempt is attracted by the publication (whether by words, spoken or written, or by signs, or by visible representations, or otherwise) of any matter or the doing of any other act whatsoever which:
- Scandalises or tends to scandalise, or lowers or tends to lower the authority of, any court; or
- Prejudices, or interferes or tends to interfere with, the due course of any judicial proceeding; or
- Interferes or tends to interfere with, or obstructs or tends to obstruct, the administration of justice in any other manner.
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 points“Pneumonia and Diarrhoea Progress Report” is released by which of the following?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Released annually by the International Vaccine Access Centre (IVAC).
- Highlights of this year’s Report:
- India has made significant progress in its vaccination coverage to prevent child pneumonia and diarrhoea deaths.
- Although overall the world’s health systems are falling short of ensuring that children have access to prevention and treatment services, India has achieved the global target of 90% coverage for three of the five vaccines whose coverage is monitored in the report.
- These vaccines are Diphtheria, Pertussis and Tetanus (DPT) vaccine, Measles-containing-vaccine first dose, Haemophilus influenzae type B, pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV), and rotavirus vaccine.
- India has also completed the “100-day agenda” — an unprecedented national scale-up of rotavirus vaccine. This landmark vaccine expansion will help protect 26 million children born each year against life-threatening cases of rotavirus diarrhoea.
- However, India failed to reach all four targets for treatment- breastfeeding, immunisation, care-seeking and antibiotics, oral rehydration solution (ORS), and zinc supplementation.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/13/pneumonia-and-diarrhoea-progress-report/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Released annually by the International Vaccine Access Centre (IVAC).
- Highlights of this year’s Report:
- India has made significant progress in its vaccination coverage to prevent child pneumonia and diarrhoea deaths.
- Although overall the world’s health systems are falling short of ensuring that children have access to prevention and treatment services, India has achieved the global target of 90% coverage for three of the five vaccines whose coverage is monitored in the report.
- These vaccines are Diphtheria, Pertussis and Tetanus (DPT) vaccine, Measles-containing-vaccine first dose, Haemophilus influenzae type B, pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV), and rotavirus vaccine.
- India has also completed the “100-day agenda” — an unprecedented national scale-up of rotavirus vaccine. This landmark vaccine expansion will help protect 26 million children born each year against life-threatening cases of rotavirus diarrhoea.
- However, India failed to reach all four targets for treatment- breastfeeding, immunisation, care-seeking and antibiotics, oral rehydration solution (ORS), and zinc supplementation.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/13/pneumonia-and-diarrhoea-progress-report/
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsThe ‘Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership’ (RCEP) agreement was in news recently, is primarily associated with which of the following?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- What is the RCEP?
- The Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership is a free trade agreement originally devised to consist of 16 countries across the Asia-Pacific region.
- However, it is now expected to be signed on November 15, between China, Australia, South Korea, Japan, and 10 Association of South East Asian (ASEAN) nations.
- The pact looks to drop tariffs and duties between the members so that goods and services can flow freely between them.
- India and the RCEP:
- May 15 was the deadline for a response to a fresh proposal of India rejoining negotiations on the Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP).
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/13/india-asean-to-expand-trade-despite-rcep-walkout/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- What is the RCEP?
- The Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership is a free trade agreement originally devised to consist of 16 countries across the Asia-Pacific region.
- However, it is now expected to be signed on November 15, between China, Australia, South Korea, Japan, and 10 Association of South East Asian (ASEAN) nations.
- The pact looks to drop tariffs and duties between the members so that goods and services can flow freely between them.
- India and the RCEP:
- May 15 was the deadline for a response to a fresh proposal of India rejoining negotiations on the Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP).
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/13/india-asean-to-expand-trade-despite-rcep-walkout/
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsThe term “One Country Two Systems” policy is sometimes mentioned in the new in the context of the affairs of
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- To put it simply, it means that the Hong Kong and Macau Special Administrative Regions, both former colonies, can have different economic and political systems from that of mainland China, while being part of the People’s Republic of China.
- The One Country Two Systems policy was originally proposed by Deng Xiaoping shortly after he took the reins of the country in the late 1970s. Deng’s plan was to unify China and Taiwan under the One Country Two Systems policy. He promised high autonomy to Taiwan. China’s nationalist government, which was defeated in a civil war by the communists in 1949, had been exiled to Taiwan. Under Deng’s plan, the island could follow its capitalist economic system, run a separate administration and keep its own army but under Chinese sovereignty. Taiwan, however, rejected the Communist Party’s offer.
- The island has since been run as a separate entity from the mainland China, though Beijing never gave up its claim over Taiwan.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/13/what-is-the-sino-british-joint-declaration/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- To put it simply, it means that the Hong Kong and Macau Special Administrative Regions, both former colonies, can have different economic and political systems from that of mainland China, while being part of the People’s Republic of China.
- The One Country Two Systems policy was originally proposed by Deng Xiaoping shortly after he took the reins of the country in the late 1970s. Deng’s plan was to unify China and Taiwan under the One Country Two Systems policy. He promised high autonomy to Taiwan. China’s nationalist government, which was defeated in a civil war by the communists in 1949, had been exiled to Taiwan. Under Deng’s plan, the island could follow its capitalist economic system, run a separate administration and keep its own army but under Chinese sovereignty. Taiwan, however, rejected the Communist Party’s offer.
- The island has since been run as a separate entity from the mainland China, though Beijing never gave up its claim over Taiwan.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/13/what-is-the-sino-british-joint-declaration/
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsIn the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘Additional Protocol’ with the ‘International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)’?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct because an Additional Protocol (AP) to the Safeguards Agreement between the Government of India and the IAEA for the Application of Safeguards to Civilian Nuclear Facilities entered into force on 25 July 2014.
- Statement 2 is incorrect.
- Statement 3 is incorrect as IAEA protocol ratification will not give the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG)
- Statement 4 is incorrect because NSG membership is not based on IAEA Additional Protocol ratification.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/13/international-atomic-energy-agency-iaea-3/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct because an Additional Protocol (AP) to the Safeguards Agreement between the Government of India and the IAEA for the Application of Safeguards to Civilian Nuclear Facilities entered into force on 25 July 2014.
- Statement 2 is incorrect.
- Statement 3 is incorrect as IAEA protocol ratification will not give the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG)
- Statement 4 is incorrect because NSG membership is not based on IAEA Additional Protocol ratification.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/13/international-atomic-energy-agency-iaea-3/
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following was set up as the world’s “Atoms for Peace” organization within the United Nations family?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation: About IAEA:
- Set up as the world’s “Atoms for Peace” organization in 1957 within the United Nations family.
- Reports to both the United Nations General Assembly and Security Council.
- Headquarters in Vienna, Austria.
- Functions:
- Works with its Member States and multiple partners worldwide to promote the safe, secure and peaceful use of nuclear technologies.
- Seeks to promote the peaceful use of nuclear energy, and to inhibit its use for any military purpose, including nuclear weapons.
- Board of Governors:
- 22 member states (must represent a stipulated geographic diversity) — elected by the General Conference (11 members every year) – 2 year term.
- At least 10 member states — nominated by the outgoing Board.
- Board members each receive one vote.
- Functions:
- Recommendations to the General Conference on IAEA activities and budget.
- Responsible for publishing IAEA standards.
- Responsible for making most of the policy of the IAEA.
- Appoints the Director General subject to General Conference approval.
- Programs:
- Program of Action for Cancer Therapy (PACT).
- Human Health Program.
- Water Availability Enhancement Project.
- International Project on Innovative Nuclear Reactors and Fuel Cycles, 2000.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/13/international-atomic-energy-agency-iaea-3/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation: About IAEA:
- Set up as the world’s “Atoms for Peace” organization in 1957 within the United Nations family.
- Reports to both the United Nations General Assembly and Security Council.
- Headquarters in Vienna, Austria.
- Functions:
- Works with its Member States and multiple partners worldwide to promote the safe, secure and peaceful use of nuclear technologies.
- Seeks to promote the peaceful use of nuclear energy, and to inhibit its use for any military purpose, including nuclear weapons.
- Board of Governors:
- 22 member states (must represent a stipulated geographic diversity) — elected by the General Conference (11 members every year) – 2 year term.
- At least 10 member states — nominated by the outgoing Board.
- Board members each receive one vote.
- Functions:
- Recommendations to the General Conference on IAEA activities and budget.
- Responsible for publishing IAEA standards.
- Responsible for making most of the policy of the IAEA.
- Appoints the Director General subject to General Conference approval.
- Programs:
- Program of Action for Cancer Therapy (PACT).
- Human Health Program.
- Water Availability Enhancement Project.
- International Project on Innovative Nuclear Reactors and Fuel Cycles, 2000.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/13/international-atomic-energy-agency-iaea-3/
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following is the best description of ‘INS Vagir’, that was in the news recently?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Indian Navy’s fifth Kalvari-class Diesel Electric attack submarine INS Vagir was launched recently at Mazgaon Dock in Mumbai.
- The other vessels in the class are INS Kalvari, INS Khanderi, INS Karanj, INS Vela and INS Vagsheer.
- About Kalvari Class of submarines:
- This class of submarines have Diesel Electric transmission systems and these are primarily attack submarines or ‘hunter-killer’ type which means they are designed to target and sink adversary naval vessels.
- They can be used in anti-warship and anti-submarine operations, intelligence gathering and surveillance and naval mine laying.
- These submarines are built under Project 75 and their design is based on the Scorpene class of the submarines.
- Being constructed by the public sector shipbuilder Mazagon Dock Ltd (MDL) in Mumbai.
- Design is based on Scorpene class of submarines designed and developed by French defence major Naval Group formerly DCNS and Spanish state owned entity Navantia.
- (Note: In maritime parlance a class of ships is a group of vessels which have the same make, purpose and displacement).
- Facts for Prelims: (Just have a brief overview of these facts)
- Origins of the names of ships mentioned above:
- Kalvari – means Tiger Shark.
- Vagir has been named after a Sand Fish, a predatory marine species.
- Khanderi has been named after an Island Fort built by Chhatrapati Shivaji, which played a key role in his Navy.
- Karanj has also been named after an Island located South of Mumbai.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/13/kalvari-class-of-submarines/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Indian Navy’s fifth Kalvari-class Diesel Electric attack submarine INS Vagir was launched recently at Mazgaon Dock in Mumbai.
- The other vessels in the class are INS Kalvari, INS Khanderi, INS Karanj, INS Vela and INS Vagsheer.
- About Kalvari Class of submarines:
- This class of submarines have Diesel Electric transmission systems and these are primarily attack submarines or ‘hunter-killer’ type which means they are designed to target and sink adversary naval vessels.
- They can be used in anti-warship and anti-submarine operations, intelligence gathering and surveillance and naval mine laying.
- These submarines are built under Project 75 and their design is based on the Scorpene class of the submarines.
- Being constructed by the public sector shipbuilder Mazagon Dock Ltd (MDL) in Mumbai.
- Design is based on Scorpene class of submarines designed and developed by French defence major Naval Group formerly DCNS and Spanish state owned entity Navantia.
- (Note: In maritime parlance a class of ships is a group of vessels which have the same make, purpose and displacement).
- Facts for Prelims: (Just have a brief overview of these facts)
- Origins of the names of ships mentioned above:
- Kalvari – means Tiger Shark.
- Vagir has been named after a Sand Fish, a predatory marine species.
- Khanderi has been named after an Island Fort built by Chhatrapati Shivaji, which played a key role in his Navy.
- Karanj has also been named after an Island located South of Mumbai.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/13/kalvari-class-of-submarines/
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about Arunachal Pradesh :
-
- The North-East Frontier Agency was renamed as Arunachal Pradesh by Sri Bibhabasu Das Shastri.
- As per India State of Forest Report (2019), the Forest Cover in the State is nearly 85% of the State’s geographical area.
- Mouling National Park located in this state.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- S1: The North-East Frontier Agency was renamed as Arunachal Pradesh by Sri Bibhabasu Das Shastri, the Director of Research and A.A. Raja, the Chief Commissioner of Arunachal Pradesh on 20 January 1972, and it became a union territory. Arunachal Pradesh became a state on 20 February 1987.
- S2: Based on the interpretation of IRS Resourcesat-2 LISS III satellite data of the period Oct 2017 to Mar 2018, the Forest Cover in the State is 66,687.78 sq km which is 63 % of the State’s geographical area. link
- S3: Protected Area network of the State: 2 National Parks (Mouling and Namdapha) and 11 Wildlife Sanctuaries covering 11.68% of its geographical area.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/13/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-13-november-2020/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- S1: The North-East Frontier Agency was renamed as Arunachal Pradesh by Sri Bibhabasu Das Shastri, the Director of Research and A.A. Raja, the Chief Commissioner of Arunachal Pradesh on 20 January 1972, and it became a union territory. Arunachal Pradesh became a state on 20 February 1987.
- S2: Based on the interpretation of IRS Resourcesat-2 LISS III satellite data of the period Oct 2017 to Mar 2018, the Forest Cover in the State is 66,687.78 sq km which is 63 % of the State’s geographical area. link
- S3: Protected Area network of the State: 2 National Parks (Mouling and Namdapha) and 11 Wildlife Sanctuaries covering 11.68% of its geographical area.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/13/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-13-november-2020/
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, consider the following statements:
-
- The FCRA regulates foreign direct investments in all associations, groups and NGOs.
- It is mandatory for all NGOs to register themselves under the FCRA.
- As per the act, media persons are prohibited from receiving any foreign contribution.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- S1: The FCRA regulates foreign donations and ensures that such contributions do not adversely affect internal security. ( Foreign Exchange Management Act- link)
- S2: The FCRA is applicable to all associations, groups and NGOs which intend to receive foreign donations. It is mandatory for all such NGOs to register themselves under the FCRA. The registration is initially valid for five years and it can be renewed subsequently if they comply with all norms.
- S3: Who cannot receive foreign donations?
- Members of the legislature and political parties, government officials, judges and media persons are prohibited from receiving any foreign contribution.
- However, in 2017 the MHA, through the Finance Bill route, amended the 1976-repealed FCRA law paving the way for political parties to receive funds from the Indian subsidiary of a foreign company or a foreign company in which an Indian holds 50% or more shares
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/13/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-13-november-2020/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- S1: The FCRA regulates foreign donations and ensures that such contributions do not adversely affect internal security. ( Foreign Exchange Management Act- link)
- S2: The FCRA is applicable to all associations, groups and NGOs which intend to receive foreign donations. It is mandatory for all such NGOs to register themselves under the FCRA. The registration is initially valid for five years and it can be renewed subsequently if they comply with all norms.
- S3: Who cannot receive foreign donations?
- Members of the legislature and political parties, government officials, judges and media persons are prohibited from receiving any foreign contribution.
- However, in 2017 the MHA, through the Finance Bill route, amended the 1976-repealed FCRA law paving the way for political parties to receive funds from the Indian subsidiary of a foreign company or a foreign company in which an Indian holds 50% or more shares
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/11/13/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-13-november-2020/
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsWith reference to ‘Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)’ sometimes mentioned in the news while forecasting Indian monsoon, which of the following statements is/are correct?
-
- IOD phenomenon is characterised by a difference in sea surface temperature between tropical Western Indian Ocean and tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean.
- An IOD phenomenon can influence an El Nino’s impact on the monsoon.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The IOD is frequently seen in news before the onslaught on Monsoon in India. IMD bases its Monsoon predictions on both IOD and El-Nino.
- The IOD, also known as the Indian Niño, is an irregular oscillation of sea-surface temperatures in which the western Indian Ocean becomes alternately warmer and then colder than the eastern part of the Indian ocean (not tropical eastern pacific ocean).
- A positive IOD, i.e. the warmer western Indian Ocean, brings good rains in the country.
- IOD has a much more significant effect on the rainfall patterns in south-east Australia than the El Niño-Southern Oscillation (ENSO) in the Pacific Ocean as shown in several recent studies.
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The IOD is frequently seen in news before the onslaught on Monsoon in India. IMD bases its Monsoon predictions on both IOD and El-Nino.
- The IOD, also known as the Indian Niño, is an irregular oscillation of sea-surface temperatures in which the western Indian Ocean becomes alternately warmer and then colder than the eastern part of the Indian ocean (not tropical eastern pacific ocean).
- A positive IOD, i.e. the warmer western Indian Ocean, brings good rains in the country.
- IOD has a much more significant effect on the rainfall patterns in south-east Australia than the El Niño-Southern Oscillation (ENSO) in the Pacific Ocean as shown in several recent studies.
-