INSTA REVISION PLAN 3.0
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INSTA REVISION PLAN 3.0
Waiting to crack Prelims 2020?
Brace yourselves for Insta Revision Plan 3.0!
The following InstaTest is part of the detailed Insta Plan 3.0 which we have given you (CLICK HERE) recently. Study and internalise the plan before you start giving these tests.
We all know the importance of solving MCQs and learning & revising through them at this point of preparation. For those who are already well prepared, you can attempt Insta Plan 3.0 as stand-alone tests for extra practice.
Your participation and appreciation for Insta Revision Plan 2.0 was incredible. Insta Revision Plan 2.0 had given you a perfect roadmap to balance Prelims and Mains preparation for 50 days.
Now that you have only 60 Days left for Prelims 2020, you need to gear up and re-orient your focus completely towards Prelims. Do not waste precious time by rueing over past and be 100% sincere towards your goal from TODAY! Remember these Revision Tests are to keep you focussed, analyse mistakes and help you revise better. Do not regret by letting these crucial revision tests go.
Even if you follow 70 percent of this plan, you will be in a much better position w.r.t your preparation and confidence levels. You would be inching towards success like never before.
All that matters is your CONSISTENCY!
Post your comments, queries, scores, feedback or suggestions in the comments section.
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Question 1 of 25
1. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following factors are taken into consideration for determination of MSP
- International price situation
- Effect on issue prices and implications for subsidy
- Inter-crop price parity
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Determination of MSP
In formulating the recommendations in respect of the level of minimum support prices and other non-price measures, the Commission takes into account, apart from a comprehensive view of the entire structure of the economy of a particular commodity or group of commodities, the following factors:-
- Cost of production
- Changes in input prices
- Input-output price parity
- Trends in market prices
- Demand and supply
- Inter-crop price parity
- Effect on industrial cost structure
- Effect on cost of living
- Effect on general price level
- International price situation
- Parity between prices paid and prices received by the farmers.
- Effect on issue prices and implications for subsidy
Incorrect
Solution: D
Determination of MSP
In formulating the recommendations in respect of the level of minimum support prices and other non-price measures, the Commission takes into account, apart from a comprehensive view of the entire structure of the economy of a particular commodity or group of commodities, the following factors:-
- Cost of production
- Changes in input prices
- Input-output price parity
- Trends in market prices
- Demand and supply
- Inter-crop price parity
- Effect on industrial cost structure
- Effect on cost of living
- Effect on general price level
- International price situation
- Parity between prices paid and prices received by the farmers.
- Effect on issue prices and implications for subsidy
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Question 2 of 25
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Pricing policy for sugarcane
- The pricing of sugarcane is governed by the statutory provisions under the Essential Commodities Act (ECA), 1955.
- States can also announce a price called the State Advisory Price (SAP) which is usually higher than the Statutory Minimum Price.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Pricing policy for sugarcane
The pricing of sugarcane is governed by the statutory provisions of the Sugarcane (Control) Order, 1966 issued under the Essential Commodities Act (ECA), 1955. Prior to 2009-10 sugar season, the Central Government was fixing the Statutory Minimum Price (SMP) of sugarcane and farmers were entitled to share profits of a sugar mill on 50:50 basis. As this sharing of profits remained virtually unimplemented, the Sugarcane (Control) Order, 1966 was amended in October, 2009 and the concept of SMP was replaced by the Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of sugarcane. A new clause ‘reasonable margins for growers of sugarcane on account of risk and profits’ was inserted as an additional factor for working out FRP and this was made effective from the 2009-10 sugar season. Accordingly, the CACP is required to pay due regard to the statutory factors listed in the Control Order, which are
- the cost of production of sugarcane;
- the return to the grower from alternative crops and the general trend of prices of agricultural commodities;
- the availability of sugar to the consumers at a fair price;
- the price of sugar;
- the recovery rate of sugar from sugarcane;
- the realization made from sale of by-products viz. molasses, bagasse and press mud or their imputed value (inserted in December, 2008) and;
- reasonable margins for growers of sugarcane on account of risk and profits (inserted in October, 2009).
States also announce a price called the State Advisory Price (SAP), which is usually higher than the SMP.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Pricing policy for sugarcane
The pricing of sugarcane is governed by the statutory provisions of the Sugarcane (Control) Order, 1966 issued under the Essential Commodities Act (ECA), 1955. Prior to 2009-10 sugar season, the Central Government was fixing the Statutory Minimum Price (SMP) of sugarcane and farmers were entitled to share profits of a sugar mill on 50:50 basis. As this sharing of profits remained virtually unimplemented, the Sugarcane (Control) Order, 1966 was amended in October, 2009 and the concept of SMP was replaced by the Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of sugarcane. A new clause ‘reasonable margins for growers of sugarcane on account of risk and profits’ was inserted as an additional factor for working out FRP and this was made effective from the 2009-10 sugar season. Accordingly, the CACP is required to pay due regard to the statutory factors listed in the Control Order, which are
- the cost of production of sugarcane;
- the return to the grower from alternative crops and the general trend of prices of agricultural commodities;
- the availability of sugar to the consumers at a fair price;
- the price of sugar;
- the recovery rate of sugar from sugarcane;
- the realization made from sale of by-products viz. molasses, bagasse and press mud or their imputed value (inserted in December, 2008) and;
- reasonable margins for growers of sugarcane on account of risk and profits (inserted in October, 2009).
States also announce a price called the State Advisory Price (SAP), which is usually higher than the SMP.
-
Question 3 of 25
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Removal of judges
- A judge is removable from his office, only on the grounds of proved misbehavior or incapacity.
- A judge may be removed from his office only by an order of the president.
- The words “misbehaviour” and “incapacity” have been defined in the Constitution
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: A
Removal of Judges:
Article 124(4) and the Judges Inquiry Act 1968 determine the procedure of removal of the judges:
- A motion of impeachment addressed to the President is to be signed by at least 100 members of the Lok Sabha or 50 members of the Rajya Sabha and then delivered to the Speaker of Lok Sabha or the Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
- The motion is to be investigated by a Committee of 3 judges of the Supreme Court and a distinguished jurist.
- If the Committee finds the judge guilty of misbehavior or that he suffers from incapacity, the motion along with the report of the committee is taken up for consideration in the House where motion was moved.
- The judge is then removed by the requisite majority, i.e. majority of total and 2/3 of its members present and voting.
Key facts:
- A member of the higher judiciary, which means the Judges and Chief Justices of the Supreme Court of India and the state High Courts, can be removed from service only through the process of impeachment under Article 124 (4) of the Constitution.
- A judge is removable from his office, only on the grounds of proved misbehavior or incapacity.
- A judge is removable from his office, only on the grounds of proved misbehavior or incapacity.
- A judge may be removed from his office only by an order of the president.
- The words “misbehaviour” or “incapacity” have neither been defined nor clarified in the Constitution.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Removal of Judges:
Article 124(4) and the Judges Inquiry Act 1968 determine the procedure of removal of the judges:
- A motion of impeachment addressed to the President is to be signed by at least 100 members of the Lok Sabha or 50 members of the Rajya Sabha and then delivered to the Speaker of Lok Sabha or the Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
- The motion is to be investigated by a Committee of 3 judges of the Supreme Court and a distinguished jurist.
- If the Committee finds the judge guilty of misbehavior or that he suffers from incapacity, the motion along with the report of the committee is taken up for consideration in the House where motion was moved.
- The judge is then removed by the requisite majority, i.e. majority of total and 2/3 of its members present and voting.
Key facts:
- A member of the higher judiciary, which means the Judges and Chief Justices of the Supreme Court of India and the state High Courts, can be removed from service only through the process of impeachment under Article 124 (4) of the Constitution.
- A judge is removable from his office, only on the grounds of proved misbehavior or incapacity.
- A judge is removable from his office, only on the grounds of proved misbehavior or incapacity.
- A judge may be removed from his office only by an order of the president.
- The words “misbehaviour” or “incapacity” have neither been defined nor clarified in the Constitution.
-
Question 4 of 25
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Buffer Stock Policy
- The concept of buffer stock was first introduced during the 1st Five Year Plan.
- Buffer stock of food grains is used for price stabilisation or market intervention to augment supply so as to help moderate the open market prices.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Buffer Stock Policy of the Government of India (GOI)
The concept of buffer stock was first introduced during the IVth Five Year Plan (1969-74).
Buffer stock of food grains in the Central Pool is maintained by the Government of India (GOI) / Central Government for
- meeting the prescribed minimum buffer stock norms for food security,
- monthly release of food grains for supply through Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS) and Other Welfare Schemes (OWS),
- meeting emergency situations arising out of unexpected crop failure, natural disasters, etc., and
- price stabilisation or market intervention to augment supply so as to help moderate the open market prices.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Buffer Stock Policy of the Government of India (GOI)
The concept of buffer stock was first introduced during the IVth Five Year Plan (1969-74).
Buffer stock of food grains in the Central Pool is maintained by the Government of India (GOI) / Central Government for
- meeting the prescribed minimum buffer stock norms for food security,
- monthly release of food grains for supply through Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS) and Other Welfare Schemes (OWS),
- meeting emergency situations arising out of unexpected crop failure, natural disasters, etc., and
- price stabilisation or market intervention to augment supply so as to help moderate the open market prices.
-
Question 5 of 25
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Operation Twist
- It has been launched by Ministry of Finance
- It aims to ensure Fiscal consolidation
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Operation Twist:
- RBI launched US-style ‘Operation Twist’ to bring down interest rates.
- ‘Operation Twist’ is when the central bank uses the proceeds from sale of short-term securities to buy long-term government debt papers, leading to easing of interest rates on the long-term papers.
- The objective behind such an operation is management of the yield curve.
- It will help to make loans less expensive with those looking to buy homes, cars and make savings less desirable as it doesn’t pay much interest.
- Other central banks, including the US Federal Reserve, have used similar measures. This is the first time RBI has undertaken such an unconventional policy measure with the aim of flattening the yield curve by lowering longer rates to boost lending and growth.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Operation Twist:
- RBI launched US-style ‘Operation Twist’ to bring down interest rates.
- ‘Operation Twist’ is when the central bank uses the proceeds from sale of short-term securities to buy long-term government debt papers, leading to easing of interest rates on the long-term papers.
- The objective behind such an operation is management of the yield curve.
- It will help to make loans less expensive with those looking to buy homes, cars and make savings less desirable as it doesn’t pay much interest.
- Other central banks, including the US Federal Reserve, have used similar measures. This is the first time RBI has undertaken such an unconventional policy measure with the aim of flattening the yield curve by lowering longer rates to boost lending and growth.
-
Question 6 of 25
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding major features of Model APMC Act 2003
- It provides for direct sale of farm produce to contract farming sponsors.
- It introduced licensing for market functionaries and trade at any market area within state.
- It permits private persons, farmers and consumers to establish new markets for agricultural produce in any area.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Model APMC Act 2003
The monopoly of Government regulated wholesale markets has prevented development of a competitive marketing system in the country. An efficient agricultural marketing is essential for the development of the agriculture sector as it provides outlets and incentives for increased production, the marketing system contribute greatly to the commercialization of subsistence farmers. Worldwide Governments have recognized the importance of liberalized agriculture markets. In accordance with above objectives, Model APMC act was drafted by ministry of agriculture in 2003.
Major Features:
- It provides for direct sale of farm produce to contract farming sponsors.
- It provides a provision for setting up “Special markets” for “specified agricultural commodities”
- It permits private persons, farmers and consumers to establish new markets for agricultural produce in any area.
- Every market shall levy market fee on sale or purchase of agriculture commodities which brought from within or outside state.
- Replaces licensing with registrations of market functionaries and trade at any market area within state.
- Market Committees permitted to use its funds to create facilities like grading, standardization and quality certification; to create infrastructure for post harvest handling of agricultural produce and development of modern marketing system.
- State Governments conferred power to exempt any agricultural produce brought for sale in market area, from payment of market fee.
- State Agricultural Marketing Board made responsible for grading and standardization.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Model APMC Act 2003
The monopoly of Government regulated wholesale markets has prevented development of a competitive marketing system in the country. An efficient agricultural marketing is essential for the development of the agriculture sector as it provides outlets and incentives for increased production, the marketing system contribute greatly to the commercialization of subsistence farmers. Worldwide Governments have recognized the importance of liberalized agriculture markets. In accordance with above objectives, Model APMC act was drafted by ministry of agriculture in 2003.
Major Features:
- It provides for direct sale of farm produce to contract farming sponsors.
- It provides a provision for setting up “Special markets” for “specified agricultural commodities”
- It permits private persons, farmers and consumers to establish new markets for agricultural produce in any area.
- Every market shall levy market fee on sale or purchase of agriculture commodities which brought from within or outside state.
- Replaces licensing with registrations of market functionaries and trade at any market area within state.
- Market Committees permitted to use its funds to create facilities like grading, standardization and quality certification; to create infrastructure for post harvest handling of agricultural produce and development of modern marketing system.
- State Governments conferred power to exempt any agricultural produce brought for sale in market area, from payment of market fee.
- State Agricultural Marketing Board made responsible for grading and standardization.
-
Question 7 of 25
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding E-NAM (National Agriculture Market)
- It is an online trading platform for agriculture produce aiming to help farmers to trade online and get a better price.
- NABARD is the lead agency for implementing eNAM.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
What is e-NAM?
E-NAM (National Agriculture Market) is an online trading platform for agriculture produce aiming to help farmers, traders, and buyers with online trading and getting a better price by smooth marketing.
It was launched by the Centre in 2015 and the government had to extend it in a phased manner across the 585 mandis of the country by December 31, 2019.
Small Farmers Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC) is the lead agency for implementing eNAM under the aegis of Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare, Government of India.
NAM has the following advantages:
- For the farmers, NAM promises more options for sale. It would increase his access to markets through warehouse based sales and thus obviate the need to transport his produce to the mandi.
- For the local trader in the mandi / market, NAM offers the opportunity to access a larger national market for secondary trading.
- Bulk buyers, processors, exporters etc. benefit from being able to participate directly in trading at the local mandi / market level through the NAM platform, thereby reducing their intermediation costs.
- The gradual integration of all the major mandis in the States into NAM will ensure common procedures for issue of licences, levy of fee and movement of produce.
- The NAM will also facilitate the emergence of value chains in major agricultural commodities across the country and help to promote scientific storage and movement of agri goods.
Incorrect
Solution: A
What is e-NAM?
E-NAM (National Agriculture Market) is an online trading platform for agriculture produce aiming to help farmers, traders, and buyers with online trading and getting a better price by smooth marketing.
It was launched by the Centre in 2015 and the government had to extend it in a phased manner across the 585 mandis of the country by December 31, 2019.
Small Farmers Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC) is the lead agency for implementing eNAM under the aegis of Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare, Government of India.
NAM has the following advantages:
- For the farmers, NAM promises more options for sale. It would increase his access to markets through warehouse based sales and thus obviate the need to transport his produce to the mandi.
- For the local trader in the mandi / market, NAM offers the opportunity to access a larger national market for secondary trading.
- Bulk buyers, processors, exporters etc. benefit from being able to participate directly in trading at the local mandi / market level through the NAM platform, thereby reducing their intermediation costs.
- The gradual integration of all the major mandis in the States into NAM will ensure common procedures for issue of licences, levy of fee and movement of produce.
- The NAM will also facilitate the emergence of value chains in major agricultural commodities across the country and help to promote scientific storage and movement of agri goods.
-
Question 8 of 25
8. Question
1 pointsWhich of the followings are considered as Alternative Investment Funds?
- Venture Capital Fund
- Hedge funds
- Commodity funds
- Debt Funds
- Infrastructure funds
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
Alternative Investment Funds are a class of investment entities that are not covered under the usual SEBI regulatory framework for investment institutions. AIFs refers to any privately pooled investment fund – a trust or a company or a body corporate or an LLP (Limited Liability Partnership) which are not presently covered by any Regulation of RBI, SEBI, IRDA and PFRDA. They may be foreign or Indian.
A notable general feature of AIFs is that they are tailor made investment arrangements like Private Equities that aims to utilize investment opportunities. AIFs are thus private investment entities.
Thus, AIFs includes Private Equities, Venture Capital Fund, Hedge funds, Commodity funds, Debt Funds, infrastructure funds, etc. Most of these investment entities are owned by big corporate houses or wealthy individuals. Private Equities like Blackstone and KKR (Kohlberg Kravis Roberts) are examples for AIFs. Several multinational banks have also AIFs. Venture Capital Funds and Angel Investors are also categorized as AIFs.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Alternative Investment Funds are a class of investment entities that are not covered under the usual SEBI regulatory framework for investment institutions. AIFs refers to any privately pooled investment fund – a trust or a company or a body corporate or an LLP (Limited Liability Partnership) which are not presently covered by any Regulation of RBI, SEBI, IRDA and PFRDA. They may be foreign or Indian.
A notable general feature of AIFs is that they are tailor made investment arrangements like Private Equities that aims to utilize investment opportunities. AIFs are thus private investment entities.
Thus, AIFs includes Private Equities, Venture Capital Fund, Hedge funds, Commodity funds, Debt Funds, infrastructure funds, etc. Most of these investment entities are owned by big corporate houses or wealthy individuals. Private Equities like Blackstone and KKR (Kohlberg Kravis Roberts) are examples for AIFs. Several multinational banks have also AIFs. Venture Capital Funds and Angel Investors are also categorized as AIFs.
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Question 9 of 25
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA)
- APEDA was established as a statutory body under the Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority Act.
- It is under Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
- The secretary to Ministry of Commerce and Industry is the ex-officio Chairman of APEDA.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) was established by the Government of India under the Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority Act passed by the Parliament in December, 1985. The Act (2 of 1986) came into effect from 13th February, 1986 by a notification issued in the Gazette of India: Extraordinary: Part-II [Sec. 3(ii): 13.2.1986). The Authority replaced the Processed Food Export Promotion Council (PFEPC).
It is under Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
As prescribed by the statute, the APEDA Authority consists of the following members namely:
- A Chairman, appointed by the Central Government
- The Agricultural Marketing Advisor to the Government of India, ex-offical.
- One member appointed by the Central Government representing the Planning Commission
- Three members of Parliament of whom two are elected by the House of People and one by the Council of States
- Eight members appointed by the Central Government representing respectively; the Ministries of the Central Govt.
Incorrect
Solution: A
The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) was established by the Government of India under the Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority Act passed by the Parliament in December, 1985. The Act (2 of 1986) came into effect from 13th February, 1986 by a notification issued in the Gazette of India: Extraordinary: Part-II [Sec. 3(ii): 13.2.1986). The Authority replaced the Processed Food Export Promotion Council (PFEPC).
It is under Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
As prescribed by the statute, the APEDA Authority consists of the following members namely:
- A Chairman, appointed by the Central Government
- The Agricultural Marketing Advisor to the Government of India, ex-offical.
- One member appointed by the Central Government representing the Planning Commission
- Three members of Parliament of whom two are elected by the House of People and one by the Council of States
- Eight members appointed by the Central Government representing respectively; the Ministries of the Central Govt.
-
Question 10 of 25
10. Question
1 pointsParamarsh Scheme has been launched by
Correct
Solution: C
Paramarsh Scheme
- The Union Ministry of Human Resource Development has launched ‘Paramarsh’ – a University Grants Commission (UGC)scheme.
- The scheme is for Mentoring National Accreditation and Assessment Council (NAAC) Accreditation Aspirant Institutions to promote Quality Assurance in Higher Education.
- The scheme will be a paradigm shift in the concept of mentoring of institution by another well performing institution to upgrade their academic performance and enable them to get accredited by focusing in the area of curricular aspects, teaching-learning & evaluation, research, innovation, institutional values & practices etc.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Paramarsh Scheme
- The Union Ministry of Human Resource Development has launched ‘Paramarsh’ – a University Grants Commission (UGC)scheme.
- The scheme is for Mentoring National Accreditation and Assessment Council (NAAC) Accreditation Aspirant Institutions to promote Quality Assurance in Higher Education.
- The scheme will be a paradigm shift in the concept of mentoring of institution by another well performing institution to upgrade their academic performance and enable them to get accredited by focusing in the area of curricular aspects, teaching-learning & evaluation, research, innovation, institutional values & practices etc.
-
Question 11 of 25
11. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following reports are published by FAO
- The State of Food and Agriculture
- The State of the World’s Forests
- The State of World Fisheries and Aquaculture
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Flagship publications
Every year, FAO publishes a number of major ‘State of the World’ reports related to food, agriculture, forestry, fisheries and natural resources.
The State of Agricultural Commodity Markets
The State of Food and Agriculture
The State of Food Security and Nutrition in the World
The State of the World’s Animal Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture
The State of the World’s Biodiversity for Food and Agriculture
The State of the World’s Forest Genetic Resources
The State of the World’s Forests
The State of the World’s Land and Water Resources for Food and Agriculture
The State of the World’s Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture
The State of World Fisheries and Aquaculture
Status of the World’s Soil Resources
Incorrect
Solution: D
Flagship publications
Every year, FAO publishes a number of major ‘State of the World’ reports related to food, agriculture, forestry, fisheries and natural resources.
The State of Agricultural Commodity Markets
The State of Food and Agriculture
The State of Food Security and Nutrition in the World
The State of the World’s Animal Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture
The State of the World’s Biodiversity for Food and Agriculture
The State of the World’s Forest Genetic Resources
The State of the World’s Forests
The State of the World’s Land and Water Resources for Food and Agriculture
The State of the World’s Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture
The State of World Fisheries and Aquaculture
Status of the World’s Soil Resources
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Question 12 of 25
12. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following sites have been designated as Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS)?
- Saffron Heritage of Kashmir
- Koraput Traditional Agriculture
- Kuttanad below Sea Level Farming System
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
The concept of Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS) is distinct from, and more complex than, a conventional heritage site or protected area/landscape. A GIAHS is a living, evolving system of human communities in an intricate relationship with their territory, cultural or agricultural landscape or biophysical and wider social environment.
Designated sites mean the sites which have already been designated as GIAHS throughout designation process.
- Saffron Heritage of Kashmir 2011
- Koraput Traditional Agriculture 2012
- Kuttanad Below Sea Level Farming System 2013
Incorrect
Solution: D
The concept of Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS) is distinct from, and more complex than, a conventional heritage site or protected area/landscape. A GIAHS is a living, evolving system of human communities in an intricate relationship with their territory, cultural or agricultural landscape or biophysical and wider social environment.
Designated sites mean the sites which have already been designated as GIAHS throughout designation process.
- Saffron Heritage of Kashmir 2011
- Koraput Traditional Agriculture 2012
- Kuttanad Below Sea Level Farming System 2013
-
Question 13 of 25
13. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI):
- It is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Power.
- It was originally registered under Section 25 of Companies Act, 1956, as a Company not for profit.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
“Solar Energy Corporation of India ltd” (SECI) is a CPSU under the administrative control of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), set up on 20th Sept, 2011 to facilitate the implementation of JNNSM and achievement of targets set therein.
It was originally incorporated as a section-25 (not for profit) company under the Companies Act, 1956.
However, through a Government of India decision, the company has recently been converted into a Section-3 company under the Companies Act, 2013. The mandate of the company has also been broadened to cover the entire renewable energy domain.
Incorrect
Solution: A
“Solar Energy Corporation of India ltd” (SECI) is a CPSU under the administrative control of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), set up on 20th Sept, 2011 to facilitate the implementation of JNNSM and achievement of targets set therein.
It was originally incorporated as a section-25 (not for profit) company under the Companies Act, 1956.
However, through a Government of India decision, the company has recently been converted into a Section-3 company under the Companies Act, 2013. The mandate of the company has also been broadened to cover the entire renewable energy domain.
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Question 14 of 25
14. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements compound the effect of desertification?
- Radioactive substances from nuclear plants which are released into the soil.
- An increase in the use of fertilizers for agriculture.
- Open defecation by animals and human beings.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Soil Pollution
Land is a very valuable but limited resource, as the population increases rapidly. Many highly urbanised cities are faced with acute space problems, as in calcutta or bombay. Besides the limited availability of land, 175 million hectares of land are becoming less productive every year. India loses 20 tons of topsoil per hectare in a year due to floods, rainfall and deforestation. 20 % to 50 % of lands under irrigation can go out of cultivation at this rate because of water logging and salinity.
The scenario of desertification is compounded by pollution which includes
- Indiscriminate discharge of industrial effluents on land and into water bodies
- An increase in the use of fertilisers for agriculture
- Open defecation by animals and human beings
- Accumulation of solid waste; this is a major problem in developed countries like india where the garbage and refuse products are not degraded
- Radioactive substances from nuclear plants which are released into the soil
Incorrect
Solution: D
Soil Pollution
Land is a very valuable but limited resource, as the population increases rapidly. Many highly urbanised cities are faced with acute space problems, as in calcutta or bombay. Besides the limited availability of land, 175 million hectares of land are becoming less productive every year. India loses 20 tons of topsoil per hectare in a year due to floods, rainfall and deforestation. 20 % to 50 % of lands under irrigation can go out of cultivation at this rate because of water logging and salinity.
The scenario of desertification is compounded by pollution which includes
- Indiscriminate discharge of industrial effluents on land and into water bodies
- An increase in the use of fertilisers for agriculture
- Open defecation by animals and human beings
- Accumulation of solid waste; this is a major problem in developed countries like india where the garbage and refuse products are not degraded
- Radioactive substances from nuclear plants which are released into the soil
-
Question 15 of 25
15. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following Wetlands in India have been included in the Montreux Record?
- Loktak Lake
- Chilka Lake
- Keoladeo National Park
- Sambhar Lake
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
Solution: C
Wetlands are areas of fen, marsh, peatland, or water, whether artificial or natural, temporary or permanent, with water that is flowing or static, brackish, fresh or salt, including marine water areas, the depth of which at low tide does not exceed six meters.
The Montreux Record should be employed to identify priority sites for positive international and national attention towards conservation. Sites may be removed from and added to the Record only with Contracting Parties’ approval in which they lie.
Chilka and Sambar lake are not included in Montreux record.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Wetlands are areas of fen, marsh, peatland, or water, whether artificial or natural, temporary or permanent, with water that is flowing or static, brackish, fresh or salt, including marine water areas, the depth of which at low tide does not exceed six meters.
The Montreux Record should be employed to identify priority sites for positive international and national attention towards conservation. Sites may be removed from and added to the Record only with Contracting Parties’ approval in which they lie.
Chilka and Sambar lake are not included in Montreux record.
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Question 16 of 25
16. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Soil Health Card (SHC)
- It is being implemented through the Department of Agriculture of all the State and Union Territory Governments.
- The one of the objectives of the Soil Health Card (SHC) scheme is to issue soil health cards to farmers every five years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Soil Health Card (SHC) is a Government of India’s scheme promoted by the Department of Agriculture & Co-operation under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare. It is being implemented through the Department of Agriculture of all the State and Union Territory Governments.
The objectives of the Soil Health Card (SHC) scheme is to issue soil health cards to farmers every two years so as to provide a basis to address nutritional deficiencies in fertilization practices. Soil testing is developed to promote soil test based on nutrient management. Soil testing reduces cultivation cost by application of right quantity of fertilizer. It ensures additional income to farmers by increase in yields and it also promotes sustainable farming.
The scheme has been introduced to assist State Governments to issue SHCs to all farmers in the country. SHC provides information to farmers on nutrient status of their soil along with recommendation on appropriate dosage of nutrients to be applied for improving soil health and its fertility.
Deterioration of soil chemical, physical and biological health is considered as one of the reasons for stagnation of agricultural productivity in India.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Soil Health Card (SHC) is a Government of India’s scheme promoted by the Department of Agriculture & Co-operation under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare. It is being implemented through the Department of Agriculture of all the State and Union Territory Governments.
The objectives of the Soil Health Card (SHC) scheme is to issue soil health cards to farmers every two years so as to provide a basis to address nutritional deficiencies in fertilization practices. Soil testing is developed to promote soil test based on nutrient management. Soil testing reduces cultivation cost by application of right quantity of fertilizer. It ensures additional income to farmers by increase in yields and it also promotes sustainable farming.
The scheme has been introduced to assist State Governments to issue SHCs to all farmers in the country. SHC provides information to farmers on nutrient status of their soil along with recommendation on appropriate dosage of nutrients to be applied for improving soil health and its fertility.
Deterioration of soil chemical, physical and biological health is considered as one of the reasons for stagnation of agricultural productivity in India.
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Question 17 of 25
17. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Aflatoxins:
- They are family of toxins produced by certain bacteria.
- Exposure to aflatoxins is associated with an increased risk of liver cancer.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Aflatoxins are a family of toxins produced by certain fungi that are found on agricultural crops such as maize (corn), peanuts, cottonseed, and tree nuts.
The main fungi that produce aflatoxins are Aspergillus flavus and Aspergillus parasiticus, which are abundant in warm and humid regions of the world. Aflatoxin-producing fungi can contaminate crops in the field, at harvest, and during storage.
Exposure to aflatoxins is associated with an increased risk of liver cancer..
Incorrect
Solution: B
Aflatoxins are a family of toxins produced by certain fungi that are found on agricultural crops such as maize (corn), peanuts, cottonseed, and tree nuts.
The main fungi that produce aflatoxins are Aspergillus flavus and Aspergillus parasiticus, which are abundant in warm and humid regions of the world. Aflatoxin-producing fungi can contaminate crops in the field, at harvest, and during storage.
Exposure to aflatoxins is associated with an increased risk of liver cancer..
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Question 18 of 25
18. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Bio-gas
1. It is a combination of methane and carbon dioxide.
2. It is formed by anaerobic digestion of organic materials.
3. It normally burns without smoke and has a high heating capacity.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Biogas typically refers to a gas produced by the breakdown of organic matter in the absence of oxygen. It is a renewable energy source, like solar and wind energy. Furthermore, biogas can be produced from regionally available raw materials, recycled waste, and is environmentally friendly.
Biogas is produced by the anaerobic digestion or fermentation of biodegradable materials such as manure, sewage, municipal waste, green waste, plant material, and crops.
Biogas comprises primarily methane (CH4) and carbon dioxide (CO2) and may have small amounts of hydrogen sulphide (H2S), moisture and siloxanes. Biogas is produced by the anaerobic digestion or fermentation of biodegradable materials such as manure, sewage, municipal waste, green waste, plant material, and crops. Biogas comprises primarily methane (CH4) and carbon dioxide (CO2) and may have small amounts of hydrogen sulphide (H2S), moisture and siloxanes.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Biogas typically refers to a gas produced by the breakdown of organic matter in the absence of oxygen. It is a renewable energy source, like solar and wind energy. Furthermore, biogas can be produced from regionally available raw materials, recycled waste, and is environmentally friendly.
Biogas is produced by the anaerobic digestion or fermentation of biodegradable materials such as manure, sewage, municipal waste, green waste, plant material, and crops.
Biogas comprises primarily methane (CH4) and carbon dioxide (CO2) and may have small amounts of hydrogen sulphide (H2S), moisture and siloxanes. Biogas is produced by the anaerobic digestion or fermentation of biodegradable materials such as manure, sewage, municipal waste, green waste, plant material, and crops. Biogas comprises primarily methane (CH4) and carbon dioxide (CO2) and may have small amounts of hydrogen sulphide (H2S), moisture and siloxanes.
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Question 19 of 25
19. Question
1 pointsBhashan Char Island, sometimes seen in news, belongs to:
Correct
Solution: C
Bhasan Char, also known as Char Piya, is an island in Sandwip Upazila, Bangladesh. It is located in the Bay of Bengal, 37 miles from the coast. The island was formed by Himalayan silt in 2006.
It was in news because of rehabilitation of Rohingyas.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Bhasan Char, also known as Char Piya, is an island in Sandwip Upazila, Bangladesh. It is located in the Bay of Bengal, 37 miles from the coast. The island was formed by Himalayan silt in 2006.
It was in news because of rehabilitation of Rohingyas.
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Question 20 of 25
20. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following animals can be declared as vermin?
- Golden Langur
- Rhesus Monkey
- Nilgai
- Indian Bustard
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: B
Uttarakhand, Bihar and Himachal Pradesh have had notifications issued by the Central Government stating that select species of wildlife have been declared as vermin in specified areas.
In other words for a specified period, in these areas, the wild pig in Uttarakhand, wild pig and Nilgai in Bihar and Rhesus Macaque in Himachal Pradesh are shifted to schedule five of the Wildlife Protection Act. Besides, Maharashtra and Telangana have had culling orders issued by the Chief Wildlife Wardens.
The latter has even appointed a panel of hunters! These decisions – for species that are damaging human life or property (including crops) – appear to be ad hoc and random.
Asian Elephant and Indian Bustard are included in Schedule 1 of WPA, 1972.
https://www.conservationindia.org/articles/legalising-hunting
Incorrect
Solution: B
Uttarakhand, Bihar and Himachal Pradesh have had notifications issued by the Central Government stating that select species of wildlife have been declared as vermin in specified areas.
In other words for a specified period, in these areas, the wild pig in Uttarakhand, wild pig and Nilgai in Bihar and Rhesus Macaque in Himachal Pradesh are shifted to schedule five of the Wildlife Protection Act. Besides, Maharashtra and Telangana have had culling orders issued by the Chief Wildlife Wardens.
The latter has even appointed a panel of hunters! These decisions – for species that are damaging human life or property (including crops) – appear to be ad hoc and random.
Asian Elephant and Indian Bustard are included in Schedule 1 of WPA, 1972.
https://www.conservationindia.org/articles/legalising-hunting
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Question 21 of 25
21. Question
1 pointsMitra Shakti, a defence exercise, conducted between India and
Correct
Solution: B
The seventh edition of the joint training exercise between the Indian Army and the Sri Lankan Army, Exercise Mitra Shakti concluded on 14 December, 2019 at Aundh Military Station, Pune. Contingent comprising of 120 personnel each from Sri Lankan and Indian Army participated in the exercise.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The seventh edition of the joint training exercise between the Indian Army and the Sri Lankan Army, Exercise Mitra Shakti concluded on 14 December, 2019 at Aundh Military Station, Pune. Contingent comprising of 120 personnel each from Sri Lankan and Indian Army participated in the exercise.
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Question 22 of 25
22. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) was established on the recommendation of M.S. Swaminathan committee
- The twenty-point programme was launched during the tenth five year plan.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) is an apex development financial institution in India. It is an institution fully owned by Government of India. NABARD was established on the recommendations of B.Sivaraman Committee, (by Act 61, 1981 of Parliament) in 1982 to implement the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development Act 1981. It replaced the Agricultural Credit Department (ACD) and Rural Planning and Credit Cell (RPCC) of Reserve Bank of India, and Agricultural Refinance and Development Corporation (ARDC).
The twenty-point programme was launched during the Fifth five year plan in 1975 by the then Prime Minister Indira Gandhi. The basic objective of the 20-Point Programme is to eradicate poverty and to improve the quality of life of the poor and the under privileged population of the country.
Incorrect
Solution: D
National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) is an apex development financial institution in India. It is an institution fully owned by Government of India. NABARD was established on the recommendations of B.Sivaraman Committee, (by Act 61, 1981 of Parliament) in 1982 to implement the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development Act 1981. It replaced the Agricultural Credit Department (ACD) and Rural Planning and Credit Cell (RPCC) of Reserve Bank of India, and Agricultural Refinance and Development Corporation (ARDC).
The twenty-point programme was launched during the Fifth five year plan in 1975 by the then Prime Minister Indira Gandhi. The basic objective of the 20-Point Programme is to eradicate poverty and to improve the quality of life of the poor and the under privileged population of the country.
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Question 23 of 25
23. Question
1 pointsWith reference to ‘Asia Africa Growth Corridor’, consider the following statements
- It is an initiative led by India and China to enhance connectivity between Asia and Africa.
- The corridor will focus on areas such as Development Cooperation Projects, Quality Infrastructure and Institutional Connectivity.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Asia Africa Growth Corridor (AAGC), a fresh initiative led by India and Japan to enhance connectivity between the two continents, was unveiled by Prime Minister of India, Narendra Modi during the African Development Bank annual meeting in Gandhi Nagar, Gujarat on May 16, 2017.It proposes four major pillars to bring peoples, goods, services, capital and institutions closer together and help realise the objectives of the Asia–Africa partnership for sustainable and innovative development.
- development and cooperation projects;
- quality infrastructure and institutional connectivity;
- enhancing capacities and skills; and
- people-to-people partnership.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Asia Africa Growth Corridor (AAGC), a fresh initiative led by India and Japan to enhance connectivity between the two continents, was unveiled by Prime Minister of India, Narendra Modi during the African Development Bank annual meeting in Gandhi Nagar, Gujarat on May 16, 2017.It proposes four major pillars to bring peoples, goods, services, capital and institutions closer together and help realise the objectives of the Asia–Africa partnership for sustainable and innovative development.
- development and cooperation projects;
- quality infrastructure and institutional connectivity;
- enhancing capacities and skills; and
- people-to-people partnership.
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Question 24 of 25
24. Question
1 pointsThe International Land Coalition (ILC) has been hosted by:
Correct
Solution: B
The International Land Coalition (ILC) is a global alliance of over 200 civil society and intergovernmental organizations in 64 countries.
The ILC has been hosted by IFAD since it was founded in 1995. It continues to emphasize that access to land and natural resources is fundamental to IFAD’s efforts to reduce poverty, increase food and nutrition security, and strengthen resilience in rural areas.
ILC’s goal is land governance that recognizes people’s dignity and human rights. The aim is to place the people who live on and from the land at the center of decision-making, including about their food systems. This includes women, men, young people, and indigenous communities of both current and future generations.
Through the Coalition, they work together to put people at the center of land governance.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The International Land Coalition (ILC) is a global alliance of over 200 civil society and intergovernmental organizations in 64 countries.
The ILC has been hosted by IFAD since it was founded in 1995. It continues to emphasize that access to land and natural resources is fundamental to IFAD’s efforts to reduce poverty, increase food and nutrition security, and strengthen resilience in rural areas.
ILC’s goal is land governance that recognizes people’s dignity and human rights. The aim is to place the people who live on and from the land at the center of decision-making, including about their food systems. This includes women, men, young people, and indigenous communities of both current and future generations.
Through the Coalition, they work together to put people at the center of land governance.
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Question 25 of 25
25. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- International Intellectual Property (IP) Index is released by the US Chambers of Commerce.
- United States and China remained top two economies on the index.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
International Intellectual Property Index
India has slipped to 40th position on the International Intellectual Property (IP) Index, 2020 from the 36th position in 2019.
It is released by the US Chamber of Commerce’s Global Innovation Policy Center. The US, the UK, France, Germany and Sweden are the top five economies on the IP Index in 2020.
Incorrect
Solution: A
International Intellectual Property Index
India has slipped to 40th position on the International Intellectual Property (IP) Index, 2020 from the 36th position in 2019.
It is released by the US Chamber of Commerce’s Global Innovation Policy Center. The US, the UK, France, Germany and Sweden are the top five economies on the IP Index in 2020.