Insights Current Affairs (27 December 2019) Revision Through MCQs
INSIGHTS CURRENT Affairs RTM - 2019
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The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
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- Article 136 provides a unique power to the Supreme Court, to do “complete justice” between the parties
- Under Article 142, the Constitution of India gives power to the Supreme Court to grant special permission or leave to an aggrieved party to appeal against an order passed in any of the lower courts or tribunals in India
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Under Article 136, the Constitution of India gives power to the Supreme Court to grant special permission or leave to an aggrieved party to appeal against an order passed in any of the lower courts or tribunals in India
- In granting five acres of land in Ayodhya, but outside the disputed area, to Muslim parties, the Supreme Court used extraordinary powers granted to it by Article 142 of the Constitution.
- The Supreme Court, implicitly referring to the demolition of the Babri Masjid at the disputed site, said that it was invoking Article 142 “to ensure that a wrong committed must be remedied”.
- Article 142(1) states that “The Supreme Court in the exercise of its jurisdiction may pass such decree or make such order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it, and any decree so passed or order so made shall be enforceable throughout the territory of India in such manner as may be prescribed by or under any law made by Parliament and, until provision in that behalf is so made, in such manner as the President may by order prescribe”.
- The provision that vests sweeping powers in the Supreme Court for the end of ensuring “complete justice” has been used generally in cases that involve human rights and environmental protection.
- This was the first time that the court invoked this power in a case involving a civil dispute over an immovable property, involving private parties. It said that while the court’s power under Article 142 “is not limitless”, it “embodies both the notion of justice, equity and good conscience as well as a supplementary power to the court to effect complete justice”.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/12/27/grounds-for-divorce-under-hindu-law/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Under Article 136, the Constitution of India gives power to the Supreme Court to grant special permission or leave to an aggrieved party to appeal against an order passed in any of the lower courts or tribunals in India
- In granting five acres of land in Ayodhya, but outside the disputed area, to Muslim parties, the Supreme Court used extraordinary powers granted to it by Article 142 of the Constitution.
- The Supreme Court, implicitly referring to the demolition of the Babri Masjid at the disputed site, said that it was invoking Article 142 “to ensure that a wrong committed must be remedied”.
- Article 142(1) states that “The Supreme Court in the exercise of its jurisdiction may pass such decree or make such order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it, and any decree so passed or order so made shall be enforceable throughout the territory of India in such manner as may be prescribed by or under any law made by Parliament and, until provision in that behalf is so made, in such manner as the President may by order prescribe”.
- The provision that vests sweeping powers in the Supreme Court for the end of ensuring “complete justice” has been used generally in cases that involve human rights and environmental protection.
- This was the first time that the court invoked this power in a case involving a civil dispute over an immovable property, involving private parties. It said that while the court’s power under Article 142 “is not limitless”, it “embodies both the notion of justice, equity and good conscience as well as a supplementary power to the court to effect complete justice”.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/12/27/grounds-for-divorce-under-hindu-law/
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsRecently Eat Right India movement has been in news for sometimes, is launched by
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Eat Right India’ movement: Launched by the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI).
- Aim: to usher in a ‘new food culture’ by nudging businesses and consumers to adopt safe, healthy and sustainable food practices and habits
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/12/27/what-is-eat-right-mela/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Eat Right India’ movement: Launched by the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI).
- Aim: to usher in a ‘new food culture’ by nudging businesses and consumers to adopt safe, healthy and sustainable food practices and habits
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/12/27/what-is-eat-right-mela/
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsRecently a document which food and beverages giant PepsiCo India cited to support its charges against Gujarat potato farmers earlier this year is being revised by the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers Rights Authority (PPV&FRA). In the context of this, consider the following statements
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- The Intellectual Property Right granted under PPV & FR Act, 2001 is a dual right i.e one is for the variety and the other is for the denomination assigned to it by the breeder
- Rights granted under this Act are not heritable and assignable and only registration of a plant variety confers the right
- Farmers are entitled to save, sow, re-sow or sell their farm produce including seed of a registered variety in an unbranded manner
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- The PPV&FR Act, 2001 was enacted to grant intellectual property rights to plant breeders, researchers and farmers who have developed any new or extant plant varieties.
- The Intellectual Property Right granted under PPV & FR Act, 2001 is a dual right – one is for the variety and the other is for the denomination assigned to it by the breeder.
- The rights granted under this Act are heritable and assignable and only registration of a plant variety confers the right.
- Essentially Derived Varieties (EDV) can also be registered under this Act and it may be new or extant. Farmers are entitled to save, use, sow, re-sow, exchange or sell their farm produce including seed of a registered variety in an unbranded manner.
- Farmers’ varieties are eligible for registration and farmers are totally exempted from payment of any fee in any proceedings under this Act.
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- The PPV&FR Act, 2001 was enacted to grant intellectual property rights to plant breeders, researchers and farmers who have developed any new or extant plant varieties.
- The Intellectual Property Right granted under PPV & FR Act, 2001 is a dual right – one is for the variety and the other is for the denomination assigned to it by the breeder.
- The rights granted under this Act are heritable and assignable and only registration of a plant variety confers the right.
- Essentially Derived Varieties (EDV) can also be registered under this Act and it may be new or extant. Farmers are entitled to save, use, sow, re-sow, exchange or sell their farm produce including seed of a registered variety in an unbranded manner.
- Farmers’ varieties are eligible for registration and farmers are totally exempted from payment of any fee in any proceedings under this Act.
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
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- Procapra picticaudata is endemic to the Western Ghat
- Procapra picticaudata species categorised as vulnerable under IUCN Red list
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- The Tibetan gazelle Procapra picticaudata is endemic to the Tibetan plateau, and given its wide distribution across Tibet, Ladakh, and parts of Sikkim, the species was of little conservation concern until recently.
- IUCN Status- Near Threatened.
- Their fur lacks an undercoat, consisting of long guard hairs only, and is notably thicker in winter.
Refer: Facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/12/27/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-27-december-2019/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- The Tibetan gazelle Procapra picticaudata is endemic to the Tibetan plateau, and given its wide distribution across Tibet, Ladakh, and parts of Sikkim, the species was of little conservation concern until recently.
- IUCN Status- Near Threatened.
- Their fur lacks an undercoat, consisting of long guard hairs only, and is notably thicker in winter.
Refer: Facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/12/27/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-27-december-2019/
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding NITI aayog
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- It was established in 2015, to replace the Planning Commission
- Its governing council consist of all chief ministers of state and Lt Governors
- Sustainable Action for Transforming Human Capital (SATH) is an initiative of NITI
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
Ans: (d)
Explanation: National Institution for Transforming India is a policy think tank of the Government of India, established with the aim to achieve sustainable development goals with cooperative federalism by fostering the involvement of State Governments of India in the economic policy-making process using a bottom-up approach.
- It was established in 2015, by the NDA government, to replace the Planning Commission which followed a top-down model.
- The NITI Aayog council comprises all the state Chief Ministers, along with the Chief Ministers of Delhi and Puducherry, the Lieutenant Governor of Andaman and Nicobar, and a vice chairman nominated by the Prime Minister.
- In addition, temporary members are selected from leading universities and research institutions. These members include a chief executive officer, four ex-official members and two part-time members.
- NITIs various initiatives
- Sustainable Action for Transforming Human Capital (SATH)
- Ek Bharat Shrestha Bharat
- Development Support Services to States (DSSS)
- Public-Private Partnership in Health
- Aspirational District Programme (ADP)
Atal Innovation Mission
- Tipeshwar Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Yavatmal district of Maharashtra
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation: National Institution for Transforming India is a policy think tank of the Government of India, established with the aim to achieve sustainable development goals with cooperative federalism by fostering the involvement of State Governments of India in the economic policy-making process using a bottom-up approach.
- It was established in 2015, by the NDA government, to replace the Planning Commission which followed a top-down model.
- The NITI Aayog council comprises all the state Chief Ministers, along with the Chief Ministers of Delhi and Puducherry, the Lieutenant Governor of Andaman and Nicobar, and a vice chairman nominated by the Prime Minister.
- In addition, temporary members are selected from leading universities and research institutions. These members include a chief executive officer, four ex-official members and two part-time members.
- NITIs various initiatives
- Sustainable Action for Transforming Human Capital (SATH)
- Ek Bharat Shrestha Bharat
- Development Support Services to States (DSSS)
- Public-Private Partnership in Health
- Aspirational District Programme (ADP)
Atal Innovation Mission
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following scheme is/are not falls under the definition of core of the core of the centrally sponsored schemes?
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- National River Conservation Plan
- MGNERGA
- National Social Assistance Program
- Umbrella Scheme for SC
Select the correct answer using the code below
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation: Core of the Core Schemes Focus of CSSs should be on schemes that comprise the National Development Agenda where the Centre and States will work together in the spirit of Team India.
Name of the Core of the Core Schemes:
- National Social Assistance Programme
- Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Programme
- Umbrella Scheme for Development of Scheduled Castes
- Umbrella Scheme for Development of Scheduled Tribes
- Umbrella Programme for Development of Minorities
Umbrella Scheme for Development of Backward Classes, Differently Abled and other Vulnerable Groups
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation: Core of the Core Schemes Focus of CSSs should be on schemes that comprise the National Development Agenda where the Centre and States will work together in the spirit of Team India.
Name of the Core of the Core Schemes:
- National Social Assistance Programme
- Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Programme
- Umbrella Scheme for Development of Scheduled Castes
- Umbrella Scheme for Development of Scheduled Tribes
- Umbrella Programme for Development of Minorities
Umbrella Scheme for Development of Backward Classes, Differently Abled and other Vulnerable Groups
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with respect to Cabinet Committee
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- They are extra-constitutional bodies, which are provided by the GOIs Transaction of Business Rules, 1961
- They are set up by the Speaker or chairmen
- Composition of cabinet committee includes only cabinet ministers
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- They are extra-constitutional bodies, which are provided by the Governments of India Transaction of Business Rules, 1961.
- They are set up by the Prime Minister according to the exigencies of the time and requirements of the situation.
- Composition– They usually include only Cabinet Ministers. However, the non-cabinet Ministers are not debarred from their membership. They not only include the Ministers in charge of subjects covered by them but also include other senior Ministers. Their membership varies from three to eight.
- Under the Transaction of Business Rules, the Government has reconstituted Cabinet Committees. These include – Appointments Committee of the Cabinet, Cabinet Committee on Accommodation, Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs, Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs, Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs, Cabinet Committee on Security, Cabinet Committee on Investment and Growth and Cabinet Committee on Employment and Skill Development.
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- They are extra-constitutional bodies, which are provided by the Governments of India Transaction of Business Rules, 1961.
- They are set up by the Prime Minister according to the exigencies of the time and requirements of the situation.
- Composition– They usually include only Cabinet Ministers. However, the non-cabinet Ministers are not debarred from their membership. They not only include the Ministers in charge of subjects covered by them but also include other senior Ministers. Their membership varies from three to eight.
- Under the Transaction of Business Rules, the Government has reconstituted Cabinet Committees. These include – Appointments Committee of the Cabinet, Cabinet Committee on Accommodation, Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs, Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs, Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs, Cabinet Committee on Security, Cabinet Committee on Investment and Growth and Cabinet Committee on Employment and Skill Development.
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
-
- Ration cards are issued by state governments to households that are eligible to purchase subsidized food grain from the Public Distribution System
- Priority ration cards are issued to households that meet the eligibility criteria set by their state government.
- Under one nation one card scheme, migrant citizen will be allowed to buy maximum of 50% of the family quota
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Ration cards are an official document issued by state governments in India to households that are eligible to purchase subsidized food grain from the Public Distribution System (under the National Food Security Act). They also serve as a common form of identification for many Indians.
- Under the National Food Security Act, all state governments in India have to identify households that are eligible for purchasing subsidized food grain from the Public Distribution System and provide them with ration cards. There are two types of ration cards under NFSA:
- Priority ration card – priority ration cards are issued to households that meet the eligibility criteria set by their state government. Each priority household is entitled to 5 kilograms of food grain per member.
- Antyodaya (AAY) ration cards are issued to “poorest of poor” households. Each AAY household is entitled to 35 kilograms of food grain.
- One Nation One Ration Card (RC) will ensure all beneficiaries especially migrants can access PDS across the nation from any PDS shop of their own choice.
- Ration card Aadhar linkage is must to access the scheme
- A migrant will be allowed to buy maximum of 50% of the family quota.
- Benefits: no poor person is deprived of getting subsidised foodgrains under the food security scheme when they shift from one place to another. It also aims to remove the chance of anyone holding more than one ration card to avail benefits from different states.
- Significance: This will provide freedom to the beneficiaries as they will not be tied to any one PDS shop and reduce their dependence on shop owners and curtail instances of corruption.
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Ration cards are an official document issued by state governments in India to households that are eligible to purchase subsidized food grain from the Public Distribution System (under the National Food Security Act). They also serve as a common form of identification for many Indians.
- Under the National Food Security Act, all state governments in India have to identify households that are eligible for purchasing subsidized food grain from the Public Distribution System and provide them with ration cards. There are two types of ration cards under NFSA:
- Priority ration card – priority ration cards are issued to households that meet the eligibility criteria set by their state government. Each priority household is entitled to 5 kilograms of food grain per member.
- Antyodaya (AAY) ration cards are issued to “poorest of poor” households. Each AAY household is entitled to 35 kilograms of food grain.
- One Nation One Ration Card (RC) will ensure all beneficiaries especially migrants can access PDS across the nation from any PDS shop of their own choice.
- Ration card Aadhar linkage is must to access the scheme
- A migrant will be allowed to buy maximum of 50% of the family quota.
- Benefits: no poor person is deprived of getting subsidised foodgrains under the food security scheme when they shift from one place to another. It also aims to remove the chance of anyone holding more than one ration card to avail benefits from different states.
- Significance: This will provide freedom to the beneficiaries as they will not be tied to any one PDS shop and reduce their dependence on shop owners and curtail instances of corruption.
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsRecently Base Erosion and Profit Shifting (BEPS) has been in news for sometimes, is an initiative of
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
Base Erosion and Profit Shifting Project (or BEPS Project) is an OECD/G20 project to set up an international framework to combat tax avoidance by multinational enterprises (“MNEs”) using base erosion and profit shifting tools
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
Base Erosion and Profit Shifting Project (or BEPS Project) is an OECD/G20 project to set up an international framework to combat tax avoidance by multinational enterprises (“MNEs”) using base erosion and profit shifting tools
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is the apex body for approval of activities involving large scale use of hazardous microorganisms and recombinants in research and industrial production from the environmental angle?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) functions in the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC). As per Rules, 1989, it is responsible for appraisal of activities involving large scale use of hazardous microorganisms and recombinants in research and industrial production from the environmental angle. The committee is also responsible for appraisal of proposals relating to release of genetically engineered (GE) organisms and products into the enviornment including experimental field trials.
GEAC is chaired by the Special Secretary/Additional Secretary of MoEF&CC and co-chaired by a representative from the Department of Biotechnology (DBT). Presently, it has 24 members and meets every month to review the applications in the areas indicated above.
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) functions in the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC). As per Rules, 1989, it is responsible for appraisal of activities involving large scale use of hazardous microorganisms and recombinants in research and industrial production from the environmental angle. The committee is also responsible for appraisal of proposals relating to release of genetically engineered (GE) organisms and products into the enviornment including experimental field trials.
GEAC is chaired by the Special Secretary/Additional Secretary of MoEF&CC and co-chaired by a representative from the Department of Biotechnology (DBT). Presently, it has 24 members and meets every month to review the applications in the areas indicated above.