Final Key with Detailed Solutions

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam – 2019 (Paper – 1)

UPSC Civil Services (Prelims) Examination – SET D – Answer Key

1. With reference to Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the following statements

AIIB has more than 80 member nations.
India is the largest shareholder in AIIB.
AIIB does not have any members from outside Asia.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c). 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Justification: S1 AIIB has 97 members and is open to accepting additional members.

S2: The allocated shares are based on the size of each member country’s economy (calculated using GDP Nominal (60%) and GDP PPP (40%)), whether they are an Asian or Non-Asian Member, and the number of shares determines the fraction of authorized capital in the bank.

China is the biggest shareholder followed by India.

See https://fas.org/sgp/crs/row/R44754.pdf and https://www.business-standard.com/article/news-ani/india-is-second-largest-shareholder-of-aiib-piyush-goyal-118062400640_1.html

S3: It has members from outside Asia such as Fiji, New Zealand etc. Membership in AIIB is open to members of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development or the Asian Development Bank. See https://www.aiib.org/en/about-aiib/governance/members-of-bank/index.html

What was the purpose of Inter-Creditor Agreement signed by Indian banks and financial institutions recently?

(a) To lessen the Government of India’s perennial burden of fiscal deficit and current account deficit

(b) To support the infrastructure projects of Central and State Governments

(d) To aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of Rs. 50 crore or more which are-under consortium lending

Answer: D

Justification: The inter-creditor agreement is aimed at the resolution of loan accounts with a size of ₹50 crore and above that are under the control of a group of lenders. It is part of the “Sashakt” plan approved by the government to address the problem of resolving bad loans.

See https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/cosmetic-repair/article24506004.ece and https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/banking/finance/banking/56-lenders-to-sign-inter-creditor-agreement-in-a-few-days/articleshow/64940424.cms

The Chairmen of public sector banks are selected by the

(a) Banks Board Bureau

(b) Reserve Bank of India

(d) Management of concerned bank

Answer: A

Justification: The word ‘selection’ is a bit ambiguous since it can be interpreted as either appointment or recommendation for appointment.

The BBB’s current mandate is to recommend the selection and appointment of wholetime Directors(WTDs) and non-executive Chairmen(NEC);

We can get a clarity on the word selection through the Union Finance Ministers’ Budget Speech of February 2015 (Para 81),

“In order to improve the Governance of Public Sector banks, the Government intends to set up an autonomous Bank Board Bureau. The Bureau will search and select heads of Public Sector banks and help them in developing differentiated strategies”, see http://banksboardbureau.org.in/upload/PDF/Chapter1_190318.pdf , the very first page in the PDF.

Once recommended, the government, i.e. the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) (not the RBI or a single ministry like the Ministry of Finance) has the final say in the appointment. So, B and C cannot be the answer. A is the answer. See https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/money-and-banking/sunil-mehta-appointed-nonexecutive-chairman-of-pnb/article9548646.ece

4. Consider the following statements:

Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India.
One of the tasks of PNGRB is to, ensure competitive markets for gas.
Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunals for Electricity.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Justification: S1: PGNRB was constituted in 2006, and therefore S1 cannot be correct. A number of regulatory bodies have existed before.

S2: The board has several functions such as to provide, by regulations, and enforce, retail service obligations for retail outlets and marketing service obligations for entities; monitor transportation rates and take corrective action to prevent restrictive trade practice by the entities etc. This clearly indicates that is ensures a competitive market for gas. See http://www.pngrb.gov.in/Functions-of-Board.html

S3: This is correct. The Appellate Tribunal established under section 110 of the Electricity Act, 2003 (36 of 2003) shall be the Appellate Tribunal for PGNRB. See http://www.pngrb.gov.in/the-act.html#bm9

5. With reference to communication technologies, what is/are the difference / differences between LTE (Long-Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term Evolution)?

LTE ‘is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G.
LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is voice-only technology.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Justification: VoLTE is voice calls over a 4G LTE network, rather than the 2G or 3G connections. VolTE can transmit data too. VoLTE has up to three times more voice and data capacity than 3G UMTS and up to six times more than 2G GSM. So, both 1 and 2 are wrong.

6. Which of the following statements is / are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017?

Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave.
Enterprises with creches must allow the mother minimum six creche visits daily.
Women with two children get reduced entitlements.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Justification: S1: The Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act 2017 provides for 26 weeks paid maternity leave for women employees. The maternity leave can be availed 8 weeks before the expected date of delivery. So, S1 is wrong.

S2: Every establishment with more than 50 employees to provide for crèche facilities for working mothers and such mothers will be permitted to make four visits during working hours to look after and feed the child in the crèche. So, S2 is wrong.

S3: Women, who are expecting after having 2 children, get a reduced 12 weeks paid maternity leave. So, S3 is correct.

See http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=159039

Which one of the following is not a sub-index of the World Bank’s ‘Ease of Doing Business Index’?

(a) Maintenance of law and order

(b) Paying taxes

(d) Dealing with construction permits

Answer: A

Justification: The ‘Ease of Doing Business Index’ covers 10 sub-indicators including – Starting a Business, Dealing with Construction Permits, Getting Electricity, Registering Property, Getting Credit, Protecting Minority Investors, Paying Taxes, Trading Across Borders, Enforcing Contracts and Resolving Insolvency. Clearly, A is not one of them.

In India, ‘extended producer responsibility’ was introduced as an important feature in which of the following?

(a) The Bio-medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998

(b) The Recycled plastic (Manufacturing and Usage) Rules, 1999

(d) The Food Safety and Standard Regulations, 2011

Answer: C

Justification: The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011 recognises producers’ liability for recycling and reducing e-waste in the country.

Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) is a policy approach under which producers are given a significant responsibility – financial and/or physical – for the treatment or disposal of post-consumer products.

The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) has been given the Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) authorisation under the new e-waste rules

See https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/news/national/cpcb-given-extended-producer-responsibility-authorisation-in-new-ewaste-rule-environment-min/article9811981.ece

The economic cost of food grains to the Food Corporation of India is Minimum Support Price and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus

(a) transportation cost only

(b) interest cost only

(d) procurement incidentals and charges for godowns

Answer: C

Justification: The economic cost of food grains procured by the FCI is a total of MSP and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus the procurement incidentals and distribution cost. See https://www.indiabudget.gov.in/es2004-05/chapt2005/chap513.pdf

The procurement incidentals are the initial costs incurred during procurement of foodgrains. The distribution costs include freight, handling charges, storage costs in godowns, losses during transit etc.

In the context of any country, which one of the following would be considered as part of its social capital?

(a) The proportion of literates in the population

(b) The stock of its buildings, other infrastructure and machines

(d) The level of mutual trust and harmony in the society

Answer: D

Justification: Option A and D are examples of human capital and option B is physical capital.

Straight from Wikipedia: “Social capital broadly refers to those factors of effectively functioning social groups that include such things as interpersonal relationships, a shared sense of identity, a shared understanding, shared norms, shared values, trust, cooperation, and reciprocity.” Option D is the correct answer.

The Service Area Approach was implemented under the purview of

(a) Integrated Rural Programme

(b) Lead Bank Scheme

(d) National Skill Development Mission

Answer: B

Justification: The Service Area Approach (SAA) was introduced in April 1989 in order to bring about an orderly and planned development of rural and semi- urban areas of the country. It was extended to all Indian scheduled commercial banks including Regional Rural Banks (RRBs).

Under the SAA, all rural and semi-urban branches of banks were allocated specific villages, generally in geographical contiguous areas, the overall development and the credit needs of which were to be taken care of by the respective branches. See https://rbi.org.in/scripts/NotificationUser.aspx?Id=2044&Mode=0

12. With reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the following statements:

Sand is a ‘minor mineral’ according to the prevailing law in the country.
State Governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central Government.
State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(e) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Justification: S1: There is some ambiguity in sand being a minor mineral. Sand can be a major mineral or a minor mineral depending on where it is used; same is the case for limestone. A brief discussion follows. See http://www.arthapedia.in/index.php?title=Minor_Minerals

According to section 3(e) of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 “Minor Minerals” means building stones, gravel, ordinary clay, ordinary sand other than sand used for prescribed purposes.

The term ordinary sand used in clause (e) of Section-3 of the MMDR Act, 1957 has been further clarified in Rule 70 of the Mineral Concession Rule, 1960.

It is stated that sand shall not be treated as minor mineral when used for any of the following purposes namely; (i) purpose of refractory and manufacturer of ceramic, (ii) metallurgical purposes, (iii)optical purposes, (iv) purposes of stowing in coal mines, (v) for manufacture of silvicrete cement, (vi) manufacture of sodium silicate and (vii) manufacture of pottery and glass.

However, given the ambiguity, we need to assume that UPSC is perhaps referring to ordinary sand. S1 is provisionally correct.

S2 and S3: The central government has the power to notify “minor minerals” under section 3 (e) of the MMDR Act, 1957. On the other hand, as per Section 15 of the MMDR Act, 1957 State Governments have complete powers for making Rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals and levy and collection of royalty on minor minerals.

The power to frame policy and legislation relating to minor minerals is entirely delegated to the State Governments while policy and legislation relating to the major minerals are dealt by the Ministry of Mines under Union /Central Government. So, S2 is incorrect and S3 is correct.

13. Consider the following statements:

Most of India’s external debt is owed by governmental entities.
All of India’s external debt is denominated in US dollars.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Justification: The table below from Wikipedia (compiled from Ministry of Finance reports) clearly shows that both S1 and S2 are incorrect.

S1: The largest portion are ECBs (commercial borrowings). Bilateral debt is the money India owes to foreign governments and Multilateral debt is the money India owes to international financial institutions such as the ADB or IMF. Clearly they are not the largest chunks.

S2: India’s external debt is held in multiple currencies, the largest of which is the United States dollar. As on 31 December 2017, 48.2% of the country’s debt was held in U.S. dollars. The rest of the debt is held in Indian rupees (37.3%), special drawing rights (5.7%), Japanese yen (4.6%), Euros (3.2%) and other currencies (1%), see https://www.rbi.org.in/scripts/BS_PressReleaseDisplay.aspx?prid=44350 and https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/External_debt_of_India

Which of the following is not included in the assets of a commercial bank in India?

(a) Advances

(b) Deposits

(e) Investments

(d). Money at call and short notice

Answer: B

Justification: Deposits are a liability on a commercial bank, since it must return its lenders the amount it owes them. Answer is B.

Loans and Advances form assets of the bank. Also, Investments form the second largest component in the assets side of banks’ balance sheets after loans and advances as per a recent RBI report, see https://rbi.org.in/scripts/PublicationsView.aspx?Id=18743 (sec 2.4)

So, the assets of the commercial bank in India are Cash in hand, Investments, Loans, Advances, Bills discounted and purchased, while the liabilities are Capital and Reserves, Deposits, Borrowings, and other liabilities.

15. In the context of India, which of the following factors is/are contributor/ contributors to reducing the risk of a currency crisis?

The foreign currency earnings of India’s IT sector
Increasing the government expenditure
Remittances from Indians abroad

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Justification: A currency crisis results in a sharp depreciation of domestic currency and may force the authorities to sell foreign exchange reserves and take measures (for e.g. raise domestic interest rates) to defend the downfall in currency.

S1: If a country has a strong export performance, a currency crisis is difficulty to occur. Since S1 leads to greater exports, it will reduce the risk.

S2: Increase in government expenditure may actually increase imports and adversely affect the currency crisis. Usually, austerity in public spending is one of the measures prescribed to contain a foreign exchange or currency crisis.

S3: Greater flow of remittances would help avert the currency crisis since greater inflow of foreign currency (which is converted into rupees by the recipient of the remittance in India) raises the demand for domestic currency.

Decline in the value of a country’s currency is known as Currency Crisis that negatively affects the economy by creating instabilities in currency exchange rates. The foreign currency earnings of India’s Information Technology (IT) sector and remittances from Indians abroad together can reduce the risk of a currency crisis in India.

Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?

(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)

(b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)

(d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)

Answer: C

Justification: Straightforward question.

The ‘Sarkaria Commission’ recommended that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the state and should be a detached figure without intense political links and that he should not have taken part in politics in recent past and should not be a member of the ruling party. See https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/the-governors-options/article17484467.ece

Which of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly?

(a) Certificate of Deposit

(b) Commercial Paper

(d) Participatory Note

Answer: D

Justification: Straightforward question.

See https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/everything-you-want-to-know-about-p-notes/articleshow/53442336.cms?from=mdr

Participatory Notes are Overseas Derivative Instruments that have Indian stocks as their underlying assets. They allow foreign investors to buy stocks listed on Indian exchanges without being registered. The instrument gained popularity as FIIs, to avoid the formalities of registering and to remain anonymous, started betting on stocks through this route.

18. Consider the following statements

As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels.
People’s participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Justification: S1: The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) is set up at both central and state levels for expeditious and transparent utilisation of funds released for forest land diverted for non-forest purpose. See http://egreenwatch.nic.in/Public/AboutCAMPA.aspx

S2: There is no such provision in the act. Even the term “participation” does not occur in the said Act. See http://www.ukcampa.org.in/Docs/CAMPA%20Act%202016.pdf

19. In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.?

Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament
Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees
Finance Commission
Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission
NITI Aayog

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 2 and 5

Answer: A

Justification: Finance commission and NITI Aayog are of advisory nature, they do not review the functioning of any regulator. So, 3 and 5 are clearly wrong. FSLRC was setup once to review financial legislations, and not regulators in the country. So, 4 is also wrong.

The Parliamentary Departmental related standing Committees may do such work, and the ad hoc committees sometimes setup to review the working of regulators specific to their respective departments.

20. With reference to India’s Five-Year Plans, which of the following statements is/are correct?

From the Second Five-Year Plan, there was a determined thrust towards substitution of basic and capital good industries.
The Fourth Five-Year Plan adopted the objective of correcting the earlier trend of increased concentration of wealth and economic power.
In the Fifth Five-Year Plan, for the first time, the financial sector was included as an integral part of the Plan.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Justification: S1: the 2^nd FYP was influenced by the Nehru-Mahalanobis plan leaning towards heavy industries. So, there was no substitution (rather emphasis) of capital goods and basic industries. S1 is incorrect.

S2: The preface to the 4^th FYP says :A sense of involvement, of participation by the people as a whole, is vital for the success of any plan of rapid economic growth. This can only be evoked by securing social justice, by reducing disparities of income and wealth, and by redessing regional imbalances.”……” The Fourth Plan thus provides a necessary corrective to the earlier trend which helped particularly the stronger sections in agriculture as well as in industry to enable them rapidly to enlarge and diversify the production base. In the long run, the full potential of growth cannot be realised unless the energies of all our people are put to profitable use.” Clearly, S2 is correct. See http://planningcommission.nic.in/plans/planrel/fiveyr/4th/4ppre.htm

S3: This is an ambiguous statement but seems to be incorrect based on our research.

The First Five Year Plan document (1950) stated that:

“Central banking in a planned economy can hardly be confined to the regulation of overall supply of credit or to a somewhat negative regulation of the flow of bank credit. It would have to take on a direct and active role, firstly in creating or helping to create the machinery needed for financing developmental activities all over the country and secondly ensuring that the finance available flows in the directions intended.” See https://shodhganga.inflibnet.ac.in/bitstream/10603/860/8/08_chapter%203.pdf Pg. 168. This implies that the financial sector was not at the backburner even from the first FYP.

The second five-year plan envisaged setting up of industrial estates by State Governments through special corporations or agencies for assistance and financing of promotion/establishment of MSMEs. These agencies form the backbone of the financial sector for MSMEs.

Also see this to review the highlights of each plan: http://mospi.nic.in/sites/default/files/Statistical_year_book_india_chapters/Five%20Year%20Plan%20writeup_0.pdf , page 2 and see the foreword of the fifth plan at http://planningcommission.nic.in/plans/planrel/fiveyr/5th/5vfore.htm . Both these official documents nowhere mention that the fifth FYP was the first to focus on financial reforms or that the financial sector was integral to the fifth FYP. The Fifth Plan, instead, gave top priority to cutting down inflation and poverty alleviation. Also, having referred various other sources (not possible to include them all here), we can say that S3 is incorrect.

21. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.
An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Justification: Straightforward question. Both the SC and HCs can question the validity of a constitutional amendment or a central law.

22. Consider the following statements

Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) exchange rates are calculated by comparing the prices of the same basket of goods and services in different countries.
In terms of PPP dollars, India is the sixth largest economy in the world.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Justification: S1: PPP is a theory which states that exchange rates between currencies are in equilibrium when their purchasing power is the same in each of the two countries. This means that the exchange rate between two countries should equal the ratio of the two countries’ price level of a fixed basket of goods and services.

S2: On the PPP basis, China is the world’s largest economy in 2018, followed by United States at 2^nd and India at 3^rd position.

See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_countries_by_GDP_(PPP)

23. With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in India in the last five years, consider the following statements:

Area under rice cultivation is the highest.
Area under the cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilseeds.
Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane.
Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

Justification: The chart below (from Ministry report 2016-17) clarifies all the statements. S2 and S3 are wrong since the area under coarse grains is smaller than that of oil seeds and the area under sugarcane does not show a steadily increasing trend, rather fluctuates.

See http://agricoop.nic.in/sites/default/files/Annual_rpt_201617_E.pdf , page 8

Among the agricultural commodities imported by India, which one of the following accounts for the highest imports in terms of value in the last five years?

(a) Spices

(b) Fresh fruits

(d) Vegetable oils

Answer: D

Justification:

See https://commerce.gov.in/writereaddata/uploadedfile/MOC_636626711232248483_Annual%20Report%20%202017-18%20English.pdf , page 39

In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?

(a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers

(b) Absence of restraint

(d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully.

Answer: D

Justification: Liberty can be seen from two perspectives – negative and positive.

Negative liberty is the absence of obstacles, barriers or constraints. Positive liberty is the possibility of acting — or the fact of acting — in such a way as to take control of one’s life and realize one’s fundamental purposes. One may surmise that the purpose of ensuring that one has no obstacles is to realize one’s full potential.

Therefore, option B only covers part of the definition of liberty, whereas option D covers it fully. Option A is also a partial definition and has a connotation more towards fundamental rights rather than liberty. One can be protected from tyranny by rule of law, but that does not by itself guarantee liberty.

See https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/liberty-positive-negative/

Which one of the following is not the most likely measure the Government/RBI takes to stop the slide of Indian rupee?

(a) Curbing imports of non-essential goods-and promoting exports

(b) Encouraging Indian borrowers to issue rupee denominated Masala Bonds

(d) Following an expansionary monetary policy

Answer: D

Justification: Option A: This would help control imports and thus the depreciation of rupee.

Option B: Masala bonds were brought in to curb slide of rupee since the borrowing is rupee-dominated and does not put pressure on our currency through borrowing dollars.

Option C: Easing ECBs will lead to higher borrowing abroad and would temporarily bridge the deficit of forex in India preventing the slide of rupee.

Option D: An expansionary monetary policy may lead to lower interest rates and thus flight of foreign capital from India (which would get better returns abroad). Also, such a policy may fuel inflation and higher imports through higher government spending and further cause slide of rupee. So, D is the answer.

Consider the following statements:

The Reserve Bank of India’s recent directives relating to ‘Storage of Payment System Data’, popularly known as data diktat, command the payment system providers that

they shall ensure that entire data relating to payment systems operated by them are stored in a system only in India
they shall ensure that the systems are owned and operated by public sector enterprises
they shall submit the consolidated system audit report to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India by the end of the calendar year

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Justification: There were data localization guidelines issued by RBI.

S1: All system providers shall ensure that the entire data relating to payment systems operated by them are stored in a system only in India. This data should include the full end-to-end transaction details / information collected / carried / processed as part of the message / payment instruction. For the foreign leg of the transaction, if any, the data can also be stored in the foreign country, if required.

S3: CAG is not involved here. System providers shall submit the System Audit Report (SAR) on completion of the requirement at (i) above. The audit should be conducted by CERT-IN empaneled auditors certifying completion of activity at (i) above.

See https://www.rbi.org.in/scripts/NotificationUser.aspx?Id=11244

Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as ‘General Data Protection Regulation’ in April 2016 and started implementation of it from 25th May, 2018?

(a) Australia

(b) Canada

(d) The United States of America

Answer: C

Justification: The General Data Protection Regulation (EU) 2016/679 (“GDPR”) is a regulation in EU law on data protection and privacy for all individuals citizens of the European Union (EU) and the European Economic Area (EEA). It also addresses the export of personal data outside the EU and EEA areas. The GDPR aims primarily to give control to individuals over their personal data and to simplify the regulatory environment for international business by unifying the regulation within the EU.

Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries?

(a) Japan

(b) Russia

(d) The United States of America

Answer: B

Justification: The two countries intent to develop a project of six nuclear power units of Russian design at a new site in India, further enhance cooperation in the third countries and bring in new perspective nuclear technologies together with joint construction of nuclear power plants.

According to the document, for the new nuclear project in India Russia will offer the evolutionary VVER generation “3+” technical solutions and will increase the level of Indian industry’s involvement and localization. This is state of art nuclear reactor technology in the world.

See https://dae.nic.in/?q=node/1136 and https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/energy/power/india-russia-sign-civil-nuclear-action-plan-for-second-plant-third-country-project/articleshow/66085647.cms

The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?

(a) Increase in the cash reserve ratio

(b) Increase in the banking habit of the population

(d) Increase in the population of the country

Answer: B

Option A and C: Any increase in a reserve ratio prevents the banks from lending more money, and reduces the money multiplier.

Option B: Promoting the use of credit cards, taking more loans etc. can lead to lending and re-lending of the same money supply several times increasing the money multiplier.

Option D: Even if this increases, and the banks reduce their lending, there may be no increase in the money multiplier.

31. Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India:

PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.
A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.
There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.
Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Answer: C

Justification: 75 tribal groups have been categorized categorized by Ministry of Home Affairs as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTG)s. PVTGs reside in 18 States and UT of A&N Islands.

See https://tribal.nic.in/pvtg.aspx

S2: The criteria followed for determination of PVTGs are as under:

A pre-agriculture level of technology;
A stagnant or declining population;

iii. Extremely low literacy; and

A subsistence level of economy.

See http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=178257

S4: Irulars are found in TN, whereas Konda Reddis are found in Andhra Pradesh (including Telangana).

See https://tribal.nic.in/DivisionsFiles/SwLPVTGs.pdf

With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?

(a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.

(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.

(c) In the event of grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.

(d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of Union Legislature.

Answer: B

Justification: As per Article 142, “The Supreme Court in the exercise of its jurisdiction may pass such decree or make such order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it, and any decree so passed or orders so made shall be enforceable throughout the territory of India in such manner as may be prescribed by or under any law made by Parliament and, until provision in that behalf is so made, in such manner as the President may by order prescribe”.

33. With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements:

The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.
When a State Legislature does’ not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Justification: S1: Article 176(1) of the Constitution of India enjoins that the Governor shall Address both the Houses assembled together at the commencement of the first Session after each general election to the Assembly and at the commencement of the first session of each year and inform the Legislature of the causes of its Summons. See https://aplegislature.org/web/aplegislature/governors-address

S2: As per Article 208 of the Constitution: Rules of procedure

“(1) A House of the Legislature of a State may make rules for regulating subject to the provisions of this Constitution, its procedure and the conduct of its business

(2) Until rules are made under clause ( 1 ), the rules of procedure and standing orders in force immediately before the commencement of this Constitution with respect to the Legislature for the corresponding Province shall have effect in relation to the Legislature of the State subject to such modifications and adaptations as may be made therein by the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly, or the Chairman of the Legislative Council, as the case may be”

This implies that state legislature does not follow Lok Sabha rules, no such provision exists.

See https://indiankanoon.org/doc/695063/

34. Consider the following statements:

The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air’.
The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument.
A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly.
The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member States to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: C

Justification: S1 is a protocol under UNTOC, and S3 is wrong as UNCAC has that provision.

The United Nations Convention against Corruption is the only legally binding international anti-corruption multilateral treaty

The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its Member States to assist in the implementation of both Conventions, which along with the UN Drug Conventions of 1961, 1971 and 1988 underpin all the operational work of UNODC.

See https://www.unodc.org/southasia/en/frontpage/2011/may/indian-govt-ratifies-two-un-conventions.html

35. Consider the following statements:

As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on forest areas.
As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.
The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

S1: Under the original Act, the definition of tree includes palms, bamboos, stumps, brush-wood, and canes. The amendment act amends this definition of tree to remove the word bamboos.

Since bamboo is defined as a tree under the Act, its inter-state movement requires permit when in transit in other states. Consequent to the amendment, felling or transportation of bamboos growing in non-forest areas will not require any permits.

See https://www.prsindia.org/billtrack/indian-forest-amendment-bill-2017

S2: The Act recognises bamboo as an MFP and vests the “right of ownership, access to collect, use and dispose of minor forest pr oduce” with Scheduled Tribes and traditional forest dwellers

See https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/bamboo-now-a-minor-forest-produce-33239

S3: Section 3(1) of the act provides a right of ownership, access to collect, use, and dispose of minor forest produce( includes all non-timber forest produce of plant origin) which has been traditionally collected within or outside village boundaries.

See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/The_Scheduled_Tribes_and_Other_Traditional_Forest_Dwellers_(Recognition_of_Forest_Rights)_Act,_2006#Provisions

Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice?

(a) Article 19

(b) Article 21

(d) Article 29

Answer: B

Justification: “The right to marry a person of one’s choice is integral to Article 21 (right to life and liberty) of the Constitution”, the Supreme Court had recently set aside a 2017 order of the Kerala High Court which annulled the marriage of Kerala Muslim convert girl Hadiya and Shefin Jahan.

See https://indianexpress.com/article/india/right-to-marry-supreme-court-hadiya-case-5131055/

37. Consider the following statements:

According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India.
In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board.
Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Justification: S1: The SC recently ruled that one can claim patents on GM cotton seeds, in a case related to Monsanto. See https://www.downtoearth.org.in/blog/agriculture/was-there-a-victory-for-monsanto-in-india-s-supreme-court-on-a-patent-matter–62800

This judgment overturned an order of the Delhi High Court which held that genetically modified plants, genetically modified seeds and gene sequences that provide genetic traits to plants are not patentable subject matter in India.

The decision comes in the ongoing dispute between the Monsanto Group of Companies and the Nuziveedu Group of Companies.

S2 is wrong.

S3: Article 3(j) of the India’s patent Act excludes from patentability “plants and animals in whole or in any part thereof other than microorganisms but including seeds, varieties, and species, and essentially biological processes for production or propagation of plants and animals”.

See https://www.ifoam.bio/en/news/2018/05/08/indian-supreme-court-says-seeds-plants-and-animals-are-not-patentable

Consider the following statements:

The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to

state the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the procedure and manner in which it is sought
lay down the standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Justification: EPA, 1986 doesn’t contain any provision related to public participation. Section 6 of the Act authorises that the Central Govt regulates pollution control norms.

See http://bch.cbd.int/database/attachment/?id=19052

As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Waste generator has to segregate waste into five categories.

(b) The Rules are applicable to notified urban local bodies, notified towns and all industrial townships only.

(c) The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.

(d) It is mandatory on the part of waste generator that the waste generated in one district cannot be moved to another district.

Answer: C

Justification: Schedule 1 of the Act contains detailed provisions for selection of landfill sites.

As per the new rules, the landfill site shall be 100 metres away from a river, 200 metres from a pond, 500, 200 metres away from highways, habitations, public parks and water supply wells and 20 km away from airports/airbase. Construction of landfills on hills shall be avoided. Land for construction of sanitary landfills in hilly areas will be identified in the plain areas, within 25 kilometers. However, transfer stations and processing facilities shall be operational in the hilly areas.

See https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/waste/solid-waste-management-rules-2016-53443

Consider the following statements:

As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018

if rules for fixed-term employment are implemented, it becomes easier for the firms/companies to layoff workers.
no notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

S1: The government has notified fixed term employment for all sectors through an amendment to the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central Rules, 1946.

As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018, a “fixed term employment workman is a workman who has been engaged on the basis of a written contract of employment for a fixed period”.
No workman employed on fixed term employment basis as a result of non-renewal of contract or employment or on its expiry shall be entitled to any notice or pay in lieu thereof, if his services are terminated. No notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman whether monthly rated, weekly rated or piece rated and probationers or badli workmen
Therefore, fixed-term employment for all sectors will make it easier for companies to hire-and-fire workers along with reducing the role of middlemen.

S2: No notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman whether monthly rated, weekly rated or piece rated and probationers or badli workmen.

See https://indianexpress.com/article/business/economy/industrial-employment-standing-orders-central-rules-1946-amendment-eases-hire-and-fire-to-reduce-middleman-role-5103765/

41. In the context of digital technologies for entertainment, consider the following statements:

In Augmented Reality (AR) , a simulated environment is created and the physical world is completely shut out.
In Virtual Reality (VR), images generated from a computer are projected onto real-life objects or surroundings.
AR allows individuals to be present in the world and improves the experience using the camera of smart-phone or PC.
VR closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing complete immersion experience.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4

(d) 4 only

Answer: B

Justification: S1 and S2 have been interchanged. Augmented reality (AR) is an interactive experience of a real-world environment where the objects that reside in the real-world are enhanced by computer-generated perceptual information. So, S3 is also correct. Virtual Reality (VR) is the use of computer technology to create a simulated environment. Unlike traditional user interfaces, VR places the user inside an experience. Instead of viewing a screen in front of them, users are immersed and able to interact with 3D worlds. So, S4 is correct.

See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Virtual_reality and https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Augmented_reality

The word ‘Denisovan’ is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to

(a) fossils of a kind of dinosaurs

(b) an early human species

(d) a geological period in the history of Indian subcontinent

Answer: B

The Denisovans or Denisova hominins are an extinct species or subspecies of archaic humans in the genus Homo.

Scientists have uncovered the most complete remains yet from the mysterious ancient-hominin group known as the Denisovans.

The jawbone, discovered high on the Tibetan Plateau and dated to more than 160,000 years ago, is also the first Denisovan specimen found outside the Siberian cave in which the hominin was uncovered a decade ago — confirming suspicions that Denisovans were more widespread than the fossil record currently suggests.

The research marks the first time an ancient human has been identified solely through the analysis of proteins. With no usable DNA, scientists examined proteins in the specimen’s teeth, raising hopes that more fossils could be identified even when DNA is not preserved.

See https://www.nature.com/articles/d41586-019-01395-0

With reference to the recent developments in science, which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species.

(b) Pieces of artificial functional DNA can be created in Iaboratories.

(d) Cells taken out from plants and animals can be made to undergo cell division in laboratory petri dishes.

Answer: A

Justification: Option A incorrect since it is difficult to envisage how this can be achieved because it is one thing to create an artificial chromosome and quite another to to make it functional. Option B is Artificial Gene Synthesis whereas Option D is Plant and Animal Tissue Culture Technology. Option C is Cloning.

S2: Artificial gene synthesis, sometimes known as DNA printing is a method in synthetic biology that is used to create artificial genes in the laboratory. The method has been used to generate functional bacterial or yeast chromosomes containing approximately one million base pairs.

See https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK21881/ and https://www2.le.ac.uk/projects/vgec/schoolsandcolleges/topics/recombinanttechniques and https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Artificial_gene_synthesis

https://www.nature.com/scitable/topicpage/recombinant-dna-technology-and-transgenic-animals-34513

Consider the following statements:

A digital signature is

an electronic record that identifies the certifying authority issuing it
used to serve as a proof of identity of an individual to access information or server on Internet.
an electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that the original content is unchanged

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Justification: There is a difference between digital signatures and digital certificates.

A digital signature is an electronic method of signing an electronic document whereas a Digital Certificate is a computer based record which

Identifies the Certifying Authority issuing it.
Has the name or the identity of its subscriber.
Contains the subscriber’s public key.
Is digitally signed by the Certifying Authority issuing it.

S1: So, digital signatures are NOT a record, and the identification of certifying authority is ascertained from the digital certificate, not digital signature. S1 is wrong.

S2 and S3: A Digital certificate is a form of an electronic credential for the Internet. Similar to a driver’s license, employee ID card, a Digital certificate is issued by a trusted third party to establish the identity of the certificate holder. The third party who issues the Digital Certificate is known as the Certifying Authority (CA).

Digital Signatures provide Authentication, Privacy, Non repudiation and Integrity in the virtual world. IT Act 2000 in India gives legal validity to electronic transactions that are digitally signed. Therefore we need digital signatures for secure messaging, online banking applications, online workflow applications, e-tendering, supply chain management etc.
Digital Certificates are digital documents attesting to the binding of a public key to an individual or specific entity. They allow verification of the claim that a specific public key does in fact belong to a specific individual. Digital Certificates help prevent someone from using a phony key to impersonate someone else.

See http://www.ntrade.in/epc_dgft/faq001.html#01

45. In the context of wearable technology, which of the following tasks is/are accomplished by wearable devices?

Location identification of a person
Sleep monitoring of a person
Assisting the hearing impaired person

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Justification: Straightforward question.

Wearable technology appears prominently in consumer electronics with the popularization of the smartwatch and activity tracker. Apart from commercial uses, wearable technology is being incorporated into navigation systems, advanced textiles, and healthcare. Hearing aid wearable devices are more common and older than the smartwatches popular today.

See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wearable_technology

46. ‘RNA interference (RNAi)’ technology has gained popularity in the last few years. Why?

It is used in developing gene silencing therapies.
It can be used in developing therapies for-the treatment of cancer.
It can be used to develop hormone replacement therapies.
It can be used to produce crop plants that are resistant to viral pathogens.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 4 only

Answer: A

Justification: Statement 3 is absurd. Rest of them are correct.

S1: RNA interference (RNAi) is a biological process in which RNA molecules inhibit gene expression or translation.

S2: Since the discovery of RNAi and its regulatory potentials, it has become evident that RNAi has immense potential in suppression of desired genes (gene silencing).

Numerous studies have demonstrated that RNAi can provide a more specific approach to inhibit tumor growth by targeting cancer-related genes (i.e., oncogene).

S4: RNAi has resulted in the invention of novel crops such as nicotine-free tobacco, decaffeinated coffee, nutrient fortified vegetation, and hypoallergenic crops. The genetically-engineered Arctic apples received FDA approval in 2015.

While it was known that plants expressing virus-specific proteins showed enhanced tolerance or resistance to viral infection, it was not expected that plants carrying only short, non-coding regions of viral RNA sequences would show similar levels of protection. Researchers believed that viral RNA produced by transgenes could also inhibit viral replication.

The reverse experiment, in which short sequences of plant genes were introduced into viruses, showed that the targeted gene was suppressed in an infected plant. This phenomenon was labeled “virus-induced gene silencing” (VIGS), and the set of such phenomena were collectively called post transcriptional gene silencing.

See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/RNA_interference

Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant ‘blackholes’ billions of light-years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation?

(a) ‘Higgs boson particles’ were detected.

(b) ‘Gravitational waves’ were detected.

(e) Possibility of inter-galactic space travel through ‘wormhole’ was confirmed.

(d) It enabled the scientists to understand ‘singularity’.

Answer: B

Justification: Two black holes recently collided to create a larger one – the biggest black hole merger yet detected. It has a mass more than 80 times that of the sun.

The resulting energy injected into the fabric of spacetime was also record breaking, with five sun’s worth of mass released in the form gravitational waves as the two holes spiralled in towards each other.

Such titanic amounts of energy meant that the signal was still detectable by the time it reached gravitational wave detectors on Earth. It produced a record-breaking result – the most distant collision detected so far, nine billion light years away.

See https://cosmosmagazine.com/space/gravitational-waves-biggest-black-hole-merger-ever-detected-revealed

48. Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India?

Genetic predisposition of some people
Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases
Using antibiotics in livestock farming
Multiple chronic diseases in some people

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3 only

(e) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: D

Justification: S1 and S2: Selection of resistant microorganisms is exacerbated by inappropriate use of antimicrobials since a number of microbes are resistant to these anti-biotics. So, S1 is irrelevant to MDR.

The practice of adding antibiotics to agricultural feed promotes drug resistance.

S3: As per WHO, the high volume of antibiotics in food-producing animals contributes to the development of antimicrobial-resistant bacteria, particularly in settings of intensive animal production. These bacteria can be transmitted from animals to humans via direct contact between animals and humans, or through the food chain and the environment. See https://www.who.int/foodsafety/areas_work/antimicrobial-resistance/amrfoodchain/en/

S4: This is a confusing option, nonetheless seems correct.

Many medical advances are dependent on the ability to fight infections using antibiotics, such as for treatment of chronic diseases like diabetes, asthma, and rheumatoid arthritis (See https://www.cdc.gov/drugresistance/about.html), and thus, multiple chronic diseases in some people may lead them to take more anti-biotics than others exacerbating the problem.

Sometimes healthcare providers prescribe antimicrobials inappropriately, wishing to placate an insistent patient who has a viral infection or an as-yet undiagnosed condition. At times there could be a wrong identification of the disease. All these worsen the problem. Whether this is actually a reason or not is hard to testify unless we find a solid evidence, but based on reasoning alone this would be correct.

Also, MDR provokes obstruction in disease control by intensifying the possibility of spreading of resistant pathogens, thus, declining efficacy of treatment and, hence, resulting in prolonged time of infection in patient. See https://www.hindawi.com/journals/ipid/2014/541340/

What is Cas9 protein that is often mentioned in news?

(a) A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing

(b) A biosensor used in the accurate detection of pathogens in patients

(d) A herbicidal substance synthesized in genetically modified crops

Answer: A

Justification: Cas9 (CRISPR associated protein 9) is a protein which plays a vital role in the immunological defense of certain bacteria against DNA viruses, and which is heavily utilized in genetic engineering applications. Its main function is to cut DNA and therefore it can alter a cell’s genome.

See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cas9

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV.

(b) Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine.

(c) Globally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses are several times more than those infected with HIV.

(d) Some of those infected with Hepatitis Band C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years.

Answer: B

Justification: Hepatitis B has a vaccine that is recommended for all infants at birth and for children up to 18 years. It is also recommended that adults in high-risk groups be vaccinated.

See https://www.hepb.org/prevention-and-diagnosis/vaccination/

51. With reference to Mughal India, what is/are the difference/differences between Jagirdar and Zamindar?

Jagirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties, whereas Zamindars were holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection.
Land assignments to Jagirdars were hereditary and revenue rights of Zamindars were not hereditary.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(e) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Both are incorrect.

The Jagirdars were the king’s officials who enjoyed the land gifted from the King. They were the rank (mansab) holder given by the king called mansabdar. They were allotted non-inheritable land area equivalent to their fee amount called Jagir. These Jagirs are temporary in character and the Jagirdars only have the right to claim and enjoy the revenue collected from the land.

The holder of land was termed as the Zamindar. They had the hereditary right over the land to claim share in the peasant’s output other than land revenues. They also have the right to detain the peasants.

See https://www.academia.edu/33049266/Jagirdari_System

https://www.owlgen.com/question/what-is-the-difference-between-jagirdar-and-zamindar

With reference to land reforms in independent India, which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) The ceiling “laws were aimed at family holdings and not individual holdings.

(b) The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless.

(d) Land reforms permitted no exemptions to the ceiling limits.

Answer: B

Justification: Straightforward question

Option A: They were applicable to both.

Option C: This was due to commercialization of agriculture, not land reforms.

The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the

(a) International Monetary Fund

(b) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development

(d) World Bank

Answer: C

The Global Competitiveness Report (GCR) is a yearly report published by the World Economic Forum. Since 2004, the Global Competitiveness Report ranks countries based on the Global Competitiveness Index, developed by Xavier Sala-i-Martin and Elsa V. Artadi.

See https://www.weforum.org/reports/the-global-competitiveness-report-2017-2018

54. Consider the following statements about ‘the Charter Act of 1813’:

It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with China.
It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by the Company.
The revenues of India were now controlled by the British Parliament.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

The Company’s commercial monopoly was ended, as a result of the act, except for the tea and opium trade and the trade with China, this reflecting the growth of British power in India

The Act expressly asserted the Crown’s sovereignty over British India.
It allotted Rs 100,000 to promote education in Indian masses and allowed them to open anywhere anytime.
This act permitted Christian missionaries to propagate English and preach their religion.

See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Charter_Act_of_1813

55. With reference to Swadeshi Movement, consider the following statements:

It contributed to the revival of the indigenous artisan crafts and industries.
The National Council of Education was established as a part of Swadeshi Movement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

S1 is easy.

S2: The National Council of Education (or NCE) was an organisation founded by Indian nationalists in Bengal in 1906 to promote science and technology as part of a swadeshi industrialisation movement. It established the Bengal National College and Bengal Institute which would later merge to form Jadavpur University.

See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/National_Council_of_Education

Consider the following pairs:

Movement/Organization	Leader
1. All India Anti-Untouchability League	Mahatma Gandhi
2. All India Kisan Sabha	Swami Sahajanand Saraswati
3. Self-Respect Movement	E. V. Ramaswami Naicker

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

S1: Harijan Sevak Sangh is a non-profit organisation founded by Mahatma Gandhi in 1932 to eradicate untouchability in India, working for Harijan or Dalit people and upliftment of scheduled castes of India.

S2: All India Kisan Sabha (All India Peasants Union, also known as the Akhil Bharatiya Kisan Sabha), was the name of the peasants front of the undivided Communist Party of India, an important peasant movement formed by Sahajanand Saraswati in 1936.

S3: It was founded in 1925 by S. Ramanathan who invited E. V. Ramasamy (also called as Periyar by his devoted followers) to head the movement in Tamil Nadu, India against Brahminism.

Which one of the following is not a Harappan site?

(a) Chanhudaro

(b) Kot Diji

(d) Desalpur

Answer: C

The Sohgaura copper plate inscription is an Indian copper plate inscription written in Prakrit in the Brahmi script. It was discovered in Sohgaura, a village on the banks of the Rapti River, about 20km south-east of Gorakhpur, in the Gorakhpur District, Uttar Pradesh.

See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sohgaura_copper_plate_inscription

In which of the following relief sculpture inscriptions is ‘Ranyo Ashoka’ (King Ashoka) mentioned along with the stone portrait of Ashoka?

(a) Kanganahalli

(b) Sanchi I

(d) Sohgaura

Answer: A

Justification: During the excavations (2000 to 2002) at Kanganahalli, the most important finding of the excavation include a stone sculptured slab bearing the name Raya Ashoka. This was the first inscribed portrait of Ashoka (surrounded by female attendants and queens) that was unearthed from the ruined Buddhist stupa.

See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kanaganahalli#Excavation_during_2000_to_2002

59. Consider the following:

Deification of the Buddha
Treading the path of Bodhisattvas
Image worship and rituals

Which of the above is/are the feature/ features of Mahayana Buddhism?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Justification: Straightforward question. All three are major features.

Buddhas and bodhisattvas are central elements of Mahāyāna. Mahāyāna’s vastly expanded cosmology, with various Buddhas and bodhisattvas residing in different worlds and buddha-fields.

This is shown through the depiction of buddhas and bodhisattvas through image worship and rituals in monasteries and viharas.

See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mahayana#Doctrine

With reference to forced labour (Vishti) in India during the Gupta period, which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people.

(b) It was totally absent in the Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar regions of the Gupta Empire.

(d) The eldest son of the labourer was sent as the forced labourer.

Answer: A

We are attaching a screenshot from the book by Upinder Singh, a favourite of UPSC.

See https://tinyurl.com/y6naszkx

Which one of the following groups of plants was domesticated in the ‘New World’ and introduced into the ‘Old World’?

(a) Tobacco, cocoa and rubber

(b) Tobacco, cotton and rubber.

(d) Rubber, coffee and wheat

Answer: A

Justification: The Columbian exchange, also known as the Columbian interchange, named for Christopher Columbus, was the widespread transfer of plants, animals, culture, human populations, technology, diseases, and ideas between the Americas, West Africa, and the Old World in the 15th and 16th centuries. It also relates to European colonization and trade following Christopher Columbus’s 1492 voyage. Invasive species, including communicable diseases, were a byproduct of the Exchange.

You can find a list of the items here https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Columbian_exchange#Organism_examples

62. Consider the following statements:

Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only.
Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only.
One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

S1: The Asiatic lion’s range is restricted to the Gir National Park and environs in the Indian state of Gujarat.

S2: The Bactrian camel (Camelus bactrianus) is a large, even-toed ungulate native to the steppes of Central Asia.

S3: The one-horned rhinoceros is native to the Indian subcontinent (not only India). The Indian rhinoceros once ranged throughout the entire stretch of the Indo-Gangetic Plain, but excessive hunting and agricultural development reduced their range drastically to 11 sites in northern India and southern Nepal.

Consider the following pairs

Famous place	River
Pandharpur	Chandrabhaga
Tiruchirappalli	Cauvery
Hampi	Malaprabha

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Justification: The Bhima River is a major river in Western India and South India. The river is also referred to as Chandrabhaga River, especially at Pandharpur, as it resembles the shape of the Moon.

Hampi is situated on the banks of the Tungabhadra River in the eastern part of central Karnataka.

The two major rivers draining Tiruchirappalli are the Kaveri and its tributary the Kollidam

In a given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some States than in others because

(a) poverty rates vary from State to State

(b) price levels vary from State to State

(d) quality of public distribution varies from State to State

Answer: B

Justification: Quoting a Planning Commission report, “For 2011-12, for rural areas the national poverty line using the Tendulkar methodology is estimated at Rs. 816 per capita per month and Rs. 1,000 per capita per month in urban areas. Thus, for a family of five, the all India poverty line in terms of consumption expenditure would amount to about Rs. 4,080 per month in rural areas and Rs. 5,000 per month in urban areas. These poverty lines would vary from State to State because of inter-state price differentials.”

See http://planningcommission.nic.in/news/pre_pov2307.pdf, page 2.

In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into stratosphere?

(a) Creating the artificial rains in some regions

(b) Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones

(d) Reducing the global warming

Answer: D

Justification: The ability of stratospheric sulfate aerosols to create a global dimming effect has made them a possible candidate for use in solar radiation management climate engineering projects to limit the effect and impact of climate change due to rising levels of greenhouse gases. Delivery of precursor sulfide gases such as sulfuric acid, hydrogen sulfide (H2S) or sulfur dioxide (SO2) by artillery, aircraft and balloons has been proposed.

Cirrus cloud thinning is a proposed form of climate engineering. Cirrus clouds are high cold ice that, like other clouds, both reflect sunlight and absorb warming infrared radiation. However, they differ from other types of clouds in that, on average, infrared absorption outweighs sunlight reflection, resulting in a net warming effect on the climate. Therefore, thinning or removing these clouds would reduce their heat trapping capacity, resulting in a cooling effect on Earth’s climate.

See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cirrus_cloud_thinning and https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Stratospheric_aerosol_injection

In the context of which one of the following are the terms ‘pyrolysis and plasma gasification’ mentioned?

(a) Extraction of rare earth elements

(b) Natural gas extraction technologies

(d) Waste-to-energy technologies

Answer: D

Like incineration, pyrolysis, gasification and plasma technologies are thermal processes that use high temperatures to break down waste. The main difference is that they use less oxygen than traditional mass-burn incineration.

See https://friendsoftheearth.uk/sites/default/files/downloads/gasification_pyrolysis.pdf

Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve?

(a) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve

(b) Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National Park

(d) Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve

Answer: A

Straightforward question. See http://www.kerenvis.nic.in/Database/BiosphereReservesinKerala_1293.aspx

68. Consider the following statements:

Some species of turtles are herbivores.
Some species of fish are herbivores.
Some species of marine mammals are herbivores.
Some species of snakes are viviparous.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(e) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: D

S1: Sea turtles may be carnivorous (meat eating), herbivorous (plant eating), or omnivorous (eating both meat and plants). The jaw structure of many species indicates their diet.

Some species change eating habits as they age. For example, green sea turtles are mainly carnivorous from hatching until juvenile size; then progressively shift to an herbivorous diet. See https://seaworld.org/animals/all-about/sea-turtles/diet/

S2: Herbivorous fishes are fishes that eat plant material. Surgeonfish and parrotfish are two familiar MAR examples, often seen browsing and scraping on reef algae. See http://www.healthyreefs.org/cms/healthy-reef-indicators/herbivorous-fish-abundance/

S3: Marine herbivores are found within four groups of species in the animal kingdom — invertebrates, fish, reptiles and mammals — and include zooplankton, mollusks, the green sea turtle, the marine iguana and some fish species. Manatees and dugongs are the only herbivores among marine mammals. See https://animals.mom.me/marine-animals-herbivores-11740.html

S4: Snakes are reptiles, and most species of snakes will follow the general rules of reptilian reproduction — the mother will lay a clutch of eggs that will hatch into baby snakes. Such snakes are referred to as oviparous. A few exceptional species of snakes diverge from this general rule. They are referred to as viviparous, and they give birth to live young. Both oviparous and viviparous snakes have uteri, or wombs; however, only viviparous snakes form placental attachments between their uteri and the developing fetuses. See https://animals.mom.me/snakes-wombs-10778.html

Consider the following pairs:

Wildlife	Naturally found in
1. Blue-finned Mahseer	Cauvery River
2. Irrawaddy Dolphin	Chambal River
3. Rusty-spotted Cat	Eastern Ghats

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

S1: In the River Cauvery, the mahseer community comprises a ‘blue-finned’ and an orange-finned, ‘hump-backed’ fish. Whilst it is not yet known whether these are distinct species or 2 different phenotypes, evidence suggests that the hump-backed phenotype is endemic to the river, whereas the blue-finned phenotype was introduced in the 1980s. See https://www.researchgate.net/publication/273517611_The_legendary_hump-backed_mahseer_Tor_sp_of_India’s_River_Cauvery_An_endemic_fish_swimming_towards_extinction

S2: Irrawaddy dolphins are found in coastal areas in South and Southeast Asia, and in three rivers: the Ayeyarwady (Myanmar), the Mahakam (Indonesian Borneo) and the Mekong. See https://www.worldwildlife.org/species/irrawaddy-dolphin

S3: In India, it was long thought to be confined to the south, but records have established that it is found over much of the country. It was observed in eastern Gujarat’s Gir National Park, in Maharashtra’s Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve and along India’s Eastern Ghats.

See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rusty-spotted_cat

Why is there a great concern about the ‘microbeads’ that are released into environment?

(a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.

(b) They are considered to cause skin cancer in children.

(d) They are often found to be used as food adulterants.

Answer: A

Justification: Microbeads are manufactured solid plastic particles of less than one millimeter in their largest dimension. They are most frequently made of polyethylene but can be of other petrochemical plastics such as polypropylene and polystyrene. They are used in exfoliating personal care products, toothpastes and in biomedical and health-science research.

Microbeads can cause plastic particle water pollution and pose an environmental hazard for aquatic animals in freshwater and ocean water.

See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Microbead

Building ‘Kalyaana Mandapas’ was a notable feature in the temple construction in the kingdom of

(a) Chalukya

(b) Chandela

(d) Vijayanagara

Answer: D

Justification: Kalyaana Mandapas were halls used for marriage or other ceremonies in Vijayanagara empire. See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vijayanagara_architecture#Temple_structures

72. Consider the following statements:

In the revenue administration of Delhi Sultanate, the in-charge of revenue collection was known as ‘Amil’.
The Iqta system of Sultans of Delhi was an ancient indigenous institution.
The office of ‘Mir Bakshi’ came into existence during the reign of Khalji Sultans of Delhi.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

S1: The provinces were divided into shiqs or district under a shiqdar. Each shiq comprised of a few parganas or kasba. Government officials of a pargana, after shiqdar were amil, who collected revenues. The mushrif kept accounts at the pargana level and the khazandar was incharge of the treasury.

S2: Empire was divided into provinces known as Iqtas headed by Hakim/faujdar/Momin, which were divided into Sarkars (districts) manned by 2 officials, Shiqdar-i-Shiqdaran (for law and order) and Munsif-i-Munsifan (for revenue collection). The jagir of the Mughal period was similar to the iqta of the Delhi Sultanate. Iqta was not indigenous. See http://www.historydiscussion.net/history-of-india/administration-system-in-the-different-periods-of-indian-history/678

S3: Mir Bakshi headed military department, nobility, information and intelligence agencies during Akbar’s reign. See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Akbar

73. Consider the following statements:

Saint Nimbarka was a contemporary of Akbar.
Saint Kabir was greatly influenced by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Nimbarka, was a Hindu philosopher and commentator, known for propagating the Vaishnava doctrine of bhedabheda dvaitadvaita, duality in unity. According to the Vedic scriptures, he was born in 3096 B.C.E., but modern historical research places him in the thirteenth or fourteenth century. So, 1 is clearly wrong. See https://www.newworldencyclopedia.org/entry/Nimbarka

Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi was born after Saint Kabir. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ahmad_Sirhindi

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kabir

74. With reference to the British colonial rule in India, consider the following statements:

Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in the abolition of the system of ‘indentured labour’.
In Lord Chelmsford’s ‘War Conference’, Mahatma Gandhi did not support the resolution on recruiting Indians for World War.
Consequent upon the breaking of Salt Law by Indian people, the Indian National Congress was declared illegal by the colonial rulers.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

S1: During the early 1900s, Gandhi was instrumental in getting the indentured labour system abolished in the British Empire. See https://www.mkgandhi.org/articles/mauritius&mg.htm

S2: He supported it. Pasting this section from B.R. Nanda’s book:

See https://tinyurl.com/yxroyhnd

S3: This is quite well known.

With reference to Indian National Movement, consider the following pairs:

Person	Position held
1. Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru	President, All India Liberal Federation
2. K. C. Neogy	Member, The Constituent Assembly
3. P. C. Joshi	General Secretary, Communist Party of India

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

All are correct. See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kshitish_Chandra_Neogy https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Puran_Chand_Joshi

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tej_Bahadur_Sapru

With reference to Mian Tansen, which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Tansen was the title given to him by Emperor Akbar.

(b) Tansen composed Dhrupads on Hindu gods and goddesses.

(d) Tansen invented many Ragas.

Answer: A

Justification: The title of ‘Tansen ‘ was given by Raja Vikramjit Singh of Gwalior. Akbar gave the title of ‘Mian’. See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tansen https://www.thehindu.com/entertainment/music/the-legend-of-mian-tansen/article22893454.ece

Who among the following Mughal Emperors shifted emphasis from illustrated manuscripts to album and individual portrait?

(a) Humayun

(b) Akbar

(d) Shah Jahan

Answer: C

Justification: Jahangir was also deeply influenced by European painting. During his reign he came into direct contact with the English Crown and was sent gifts of oil paintings, which included portraits of the King and Queen. He encouraged his royal atelier to take up the single point perspective favoured by European artists, unlike the flattened multi-layered style used in traditional miniatures. He particularly encouraged paintings depicting events of his own life, individual portraits, and studies of birds, flowers and animals.

See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mughal_painting#Jahangir_(1605%E2%80%9325)

Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine zone?

(a) Manas National Park

(b) Namdapha National Park

(d) Valley of Flowers National Park

Answer: D

Justification: Valley of flowers is famous for its alpine meadows. It wholly lies in temperate alpine zone. The valley has three sub-alpine between 3,200m and 3,500m which is the limit for trees, lower alpine between 3,500m and 3,700m, and higher alpine above 3,700m. See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Valley_of_Flowers_National_Park#Vegetation

Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the

(a) Department of Science and Technology

(b) Ministry of Employment

(d) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship

Answer: C

Straightforward question. See https://niti.gov.in/content/atal-innovation-mission-aim

On 21st June, the Sun

(a) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle

(b) does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle

(d) shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn

Answer: A

Justification: For that hemisphere, the summer solstice is when the Sun reaches its highest position in the sky and is the day with the longest period of daylight. At the pole, there is continuous daylight around the summer solstice. See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Summer_solstice

81. Consider the following statements:

Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment.
Cattle release ammonia into environment.
Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Justification: Agricultural soils contributed to over 70% of N2O emissions from India in 2010, followed by waste water (12%) and residential and commercial activities (6%). Since 2002, N2O has replaced methane as the second largest Greenhouse Gas (GHG) from Indian agriculture.

Cattle account for 80% of the ammonia production, though their annual growth rate is 1%, due to a stable population.

The poultry industry, on the other hand, with an annual growth rate of 6%, recorded an excretion of reactive nitrogen compounds of 0.415 tonnes in 2016.

See https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/nitrogen-emissions-going-up-study/article24090131.ece

What is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati?

(a) Recently discovered uranium deposits

(b) Tropical rain forests

(d) Water reservoirs

Answer: D

Justification: They are all water reservoirs. See http://agricoop.nic.in/sites/default/files/CWWG%20Data%20as%20on%2019.01.2018.pdf

83. In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for buses in public transport, consider the following statements:

The main advantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions.
H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions.
Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses.
H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: B

Justification: HCNG is a mixture of compressed natural gas (CNG) and some % Hydrogen by energy.

HCNG which may be used as a fuel of Internal Combustion Engine (ICE) is considered a cleaner source of fuel, more powerful and offers more mileage then even CNG.

Some advantages of HCNG:

HCNG reduces emissions of CO up to 70%. S1 is incorrect since it is not possible.
Enables up to 5 % savings in fuel.
Better performance due to higher Octane rating of H2.

S3: Delhi Government has tied up with Indian Oil Corporation Limited to study the technology and infrastructure needs to induct 50 HCNG buses on a trial basis. IOCL has plans to mix (18-20) % Hydrogen in these buses.

S4: Current cost of H2 is more than the cost of Natural Gas. So, HCNG’s cost is more than CNG.

See https://www.insightsonindia.com/2018/09/11/rajya-sabha-tv-in-depth-hcng-fuel-of-the-future/

Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night?

(a) Clouds absorb the radiation released from the Earth’s surface.

(b) Clouds reflect back the Earth’s radiation.

(d) Clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground level.

Answer: B

Justification: Straightforward question.

The dew formation is more when the sky is clear and less when it is cloudy. When the sky is clear and the trees and plants are cooler at nights, there is more evaporation of water and hence more dew formation. But when it is cloudy, trees and plants do not get cool in the night and hence there is less dew formation. As the sun raises high in the sky, these dew drops evaporate into air.

85. Consider the following statements:

The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Justification: S1: The Thirty-ninth Amendment of the Constitution of India, enacted on 10 August 1975, placed the election of the President, the Vice President, the Prime Minister and the Speaker of the Lok Sabha beyond the scrutiny of the Indian courts. It was passed during the Emergency of 1975–1977. See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Thirty-ninth_Amendment_of_the_Constitution_of_India

S2: 99^th CA would have established the National Judicial Appointments Commission. But, in 2015, the Constitution Bench of Supreme Court by 4:1 Majority upheld the collegium system and struck down the NJAC as unconstitutional. See https://www.constitution.org/cons/india/tamnd44.htm

86. Consider the following statements:

The- motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what Constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Answer: C

Justification: The speaker has the discretion to accept or reject the motion, so S1 is wrong.

S2: It has not been defined.

S3 and S4 are well known and can be verified here https://www.business-standard.com/article/current-affairs/impeachment-explainer-and-options-before-oppn-if-chairman-rejects-motion-118042000800_1.html

The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru

(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri

(d) Morarji Desai

Answer: A

Justification: The first amendment to the Indian Constitution added the Ninth Schedule to it. It was introduced by the Nehru Government, on 10 May 1951 to address judicial decisions and pronouncements especially about the chapter on fundamental rights.

See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Constitution_of_India

88. Consider the following statements:

Coal sector was nationalized by the Government of India under Indira Gandhi.
Now, coal blocks are allocated on lottery basis.
Till recently, India imported coal to meet the shortages of domestic supply, but now India is self-sufficient in coal production.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

India’s coal industry was predominantly driven by the private sector after Independence until the Indira Gandhi government decided to transfer all coal holdings to Coal India through the Coal Mines (Nationalisation) Act, 1973. See https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/canary-in-coal-mine/article22838759.ece

S2 is done on an auction basis. See http://www.pib.nic.in/Pressreleaseshare.aspx?PRID=1566734

India is still import-dependent for coal supply.

89. Consider the following statements:

The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Justification: Since S3 is clearly incorrect, the answer must be A.

According to Articles 102(1)(a) and 191(1)(a) of Constitution, legislators (MP or MLA) can be barred from holding office of profit under Central Government or state government as it can put them in position to gain financial benefit.

The Supreme Court recently held that the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Amendment Act, 2006 exempting 55 offices occupied by members of Parliament from disqualification was constitutionally valid. See https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/Supreme-Court-upholds-office-of-profit-law/article16876481.ece

Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?

(a) Third Schedule

(b) Fifth Schedule

(d) Twelfth Schedule

Answer: B

Justification: Straightforward question.

See https://www.casemine.com/judgement/in/5609ad2ee4b0149711410b90

Recently, there was a growing awareness in our country about the importance of Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) because it is found to be a sustainable source of

(a) anti-malarial drug

(b) bio-diesel

(d) textile fibre

Answer: D

Justification: Girardinia diversifolia (Himalayan nettle), a fibre-yielding plant, has become an important livelihood option for people living in the remote mountainous villages of the Hindu Kush Himalaya.

There is a community in Khar, a hamlet in Darchula district in far-western Nepal, which produces fabrics from Himalayan nettle. The fabric and the things made from it are sold in local as well as national and international markets as high-end products.

See https://www.downtoearth.org.in/blog/environment/khar-s-experimentation-with-himalayan-nettle-brings-recognition-57880

92. For the measurement/estimation of which of the following are satellite images/remote sensing data used?

Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a specific location
Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies of a specific location
Land surface temperatures of a specific location

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Justification: S1: Thematic mappers take images in multiple wavelengths of electro-magnetic radiation (multi-spectral) and based on this survey – maps of land cover and land use from thematic mapping can be used to prospect for minerals, detect or monitor land usage, detect invasive vegetation, deforestation, and examine the health of indigenous plants and crops, including entire farming regions or forests. See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Remote_sensing#Applications_of_remote_sensing

S2: Radiometers and photometers are the most common instrument in use, collecting reflected and emitted radiation in a wide range of frequencies. They may also be used to detect the emission spectra of various chemicals, providing data on chemical concentrations in the atmosphere.

S3: It is possible to measure land surface temperatures, see here https://rmets.onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/pdf/10.1002/met.287

93. Consider the following States:

Chhattisgarh
Madhya Pradesh
Maharashtra
Odisha

With reference to the States mentioned above, in terms of percentage of forest cover to the total area of State, which one of the following is the correct ascending order?

(a) 2-3-1-4

(b) 2-3-4-1

(d) 3-2-1-4

Answer: C

Justification: The corresponding forest cover is about 16% (MH), 25% (MP), 32% (Odisha) and 42% (Chhattisgarh).

You can calculate from here:

See http://fsi.nic.in/isfr2017/isfr-forest-cover-2017.pdf , Page 11

94. Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of ‘methane hydrate?

Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.
Large deposits of ‘methane hydrate’ are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor.
Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Justification: S1 and S2: Large but poorly known amounts of methane are trapped in the sediments beneath the sea floor (in Tundra region and elsewhere), frozen into a form of water ice called methane hydrate.

At low temperatures the methane hydrates on the sea floor are stable, but if the water and the sea floor become warmer, then the hydrates can break down. Because microorganisms then oxidize the resulting methane gas to form the greenhouse gas carbon dioxide (CO2), methane hydrates have recently become a topic of intense discussion within the context of climate change. See https://worldoceanreview.com/en/wor-1/energy/methane-hydrates/

S3: Methane is relatively short-lived in the atmosphere; a molecule of methane is oxidized to water and carbon dioxide within a decade or so, mainly by reaction with another trace gas, the hydroxyl radical OH-. Thus, unlike the case of carbon dioxide (which stays in the atmosphere longer than methane), a concerted effort to reduce methane emissions would have almost immediate results in terms of reduction of greenhouse effect. See http://earthguide.ucsd.edu/virtualmuseum/climatechange1/03_3.shtml

95. Consider the following:

Carbon monoxide
Methane
Ozone
Sulphur dioxide

Which of the above are released into atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: D

Justification: Agricultural crop residue burning contribute towards the emission of greenhouse gases (CO2, N2O, CH4), air pollutants (CO, NH3, NOx, SO2, NMHC, volatile organic compounds), particulates matter and smoke thereby posing threat to human health.

Satellite observations have revealed elevated levels of O3 (Ozone), CO and aerosols over vast areas of Central Africa and South America, over the tropical Atlantic, and the Indian Ocean due to long-range transport of pollutants emitted from biomass burning.

See http://www.aaqr.org/files/article/619/40_AAQR-13-01-OA-0031_422-430.pdf

Consider the following pairs:

Sea	Bordering country
1. Adriatic Sea	Albania
2. Black Sea	Croatia
3. Caspian Sea	Kazakhstan
4. Mediterranean Sea	Morocco
5. Red Sea	Syria

Which of the pair given above are correctly matched?

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: B

Justification:

The countries with coasts on the Adriatic are Albania, Bosnia and Herzegovina, Croatia, Italy, Montenegro and Slovenia.

Please verify the rest with the maps.

Among the following, which one is the largest exporter of rice in the world in the last five years?

(a) China

(b) India

(d) Vietnam

Answer: B

Justification: India emerged the world’s largest rice exporter in 2011-12, displacing Thailand from its leadership position. Two factors played a role in this. The first was the government’s decision in February 2011 to lift a four-year ban on exports of non-basmati varieties of rice, paving the way for a rise in exports of those varieties.

The second was a decision of the then Thai government under Prime Minister Yingluck Shinawatra, taken in the same year, to favour farmers by strengthening a Rice Pledging Scheme under which it promised to procure unlimited stocks at an enhanced price that reflected a 50 per cent increase over 2010.

See https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/opinion/columns/c-p-chandrasekhar/the-dynamics-of-indias-rice-export-boom/article25994349.ece

Consider the following pairs:

Glacier	River
1. Bandarpunch	Yamuna
2. Bara Shigri	Chenab
3. Milam	Mandakini
4. Siachen	Nubra
5. Zemu	Manas

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 3 and 5

Answer: A

Justification: S3: Mandakini originates from the Chorabari Glacier near Kedarnath in Uttarakhand, India. Mandakini is fed by Vasukiganga River at Sonprayag.

S5: The Manas river system as a whole in Bhutan constitutes a length of 3,200 kilometres (2,000 mi), the main stem of the river is the Manas or Gongri river, which originates in the West Kameng District of Arunachal Pradesh in India. Zemu is located in Sikkim.

In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as

(a) pesticides in agriculture

(b) preservatives in processed foods

(d) moisturising agents in cosmetics

Answer: A

Justification: Carbofuran is one of the most toxic carbamate pesticides. It is marketed under the trade names Furadan, by FMC Corporation and Curater, among several others. It is used to control insects in a wide variety of field crops, including potatoes, corn and soybeans.

Excerpts from a news report:

“CARDAMOM Planters Marketing Co-operative Society in Kerala has appealed to the high court to suspend the ban on the use of extremely toxic and highly toxic pesticides.

To promote organic farming in Kerala, the state agriculture department had ordered a ban on the use of these two categories of pesticides on May 7. The order was to be implemented within 10 days.

During this period the Kerala Agriculture University was asked to provide alternatives to the banned pesticides, which include carbofuran, phorate, methyl parathion, monocrotophos, methyl demethon, prophenophos and triazophos. The university suggested less hazardous pesticides, like acephate, carbaryl, dimethoate and flubendiamide.”

See https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/pesticide-ban-lands-kerala-in-court-33657

100. Consider the following statements:

Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India.
The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention.
The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Justification: S1: There is no such binding provision. Contracting Parties to the Ramsar convention make a commitment to:

designate at least one site that meets the Ramsar criteria for inclusion in the List of Wetlands of International Importance
promote the conservation and wise use of wetlands
include wetland conservation within their national land-use planning
establish nature reserves on wetlands and promote wetland training, and
consult with other Contracting Parties about the implementation of the Ramsar Convention.

See https://www.environment.gov.au/water/wetlands/ramsar

S2: This is a correct statement.

Clause 3 of 2010 rules: “Protected wetlands –

Based on the significance of the functions performed by the wetlands for overall well being of the people and for determining the extent and level of regulation, the following wetlands shall be regulated under these rules, namely:-

(i) wetlands categorised as Ramsar Wetlands of International Importance under the Ramsar Convention as specified in the Schedule;

See https://indiankanoon.org/doc/106740276/

S3: As per the definitions stated under the rules, “wetland” means an area or of marsh, fen, peatland or water…..includes all inland waters such as lakes, reservoir, tanks, backwaters, lagoon, creeks, estuaries and manmade wetland and the zone of direct influence on wetlands that is to say the drainage area or catchment region of the wetlands as determined by the authority but does not include main river channels, paddy fields and the coastal wetland.

See https://indiankanoon.org/doc/106740276/

Final Key with Detailed Solutions – UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam – 2019

Final Key with Detailed Solutions

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam – 2019 (Paper – 1)

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