INSIGHTS IAS REVISION PLAN FOR PRELIMS 2019 – DAILY REVISION TESTS: TEST-44
INSIGHTS IAS REVISION PLAN FOR PRELIMS 2019 - DAILY REVISION TESTS
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Welcome to Insights IAS Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam – 2019.
If you are wondering why these questions are posted, please refer to the detailed Timetable provided HERE.
These questions are carefully framed to help you improve various skills and knowledge necessary to face uncertain, unpredictable and difficult questions in real prelims exam. This test is NOT about your scores. It’s about an opportunity to make mistakes and learn from these mistakes now itself. Also, these tests are NOT meant to give you EXPECTED questions for the upcoming prelims. So, don’t judge these questions unless there is an error (factual or typo) in these questions. To do really well in these small tests, REVISION is the KEY. Do follow our Revision Timetable religiously. It WILL help you clear Prelims – 2019.
Once you give this test, please POST your scores in the comment box. Also post how you could tackle certain questions – like, based on what logic or skill. This will help people who have trouble eliminating wrong options get a chance to learn from your expertise.
Wish you Good Luck! 🙂
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Question 1 of 25
1. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements
- Parliament under Article 368 can amend any part of the Constitution including the Fundamental Rights but without affecting the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution.
- Supreme Court is yet to define or clarify as to what constitutes the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The present position is that the Parliament under Article 368 can amend any part of the Constitution including the Fundamental Rights but without affecting the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution.
However the Supreme Court is yet to define or clarify as to what constitutes the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The present position is that the Parliament under Article 368 can amend any part of the Constitution including the Fundamental Rights but without affecting the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution.
However the Supreme Court is yet to define or clarify as to what constitutes the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution.
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Question 2 of 25
2. Question
2 pointsFundamental rights are available against the actions of
Correct
Solution: C
They are available against the actions of private individuals, for e.g. right against untouchability.
They are available against the actions of entities as well, for e.g. right to enter a public space without discrimination.
They are available against the actions of the state as well, for e.g. right to life and liberty and equality before law.
Even commercial entities enjoy some fundamental rights, for e.g. all commercial entities are subject to law and the state cannot arbitrarily discriminate. Media enjoys the right against government censorship as a part of Article 19 – Freedom of Speech and Expression.
Incorrect
Solution: C
They are available against the actions of private individuals, for e.g. right against untouchability.
They are available against the actions of entities as well, for e.g. right to enter a public space without discrimination.
They are available against the actions of the state as well, for e.g. right to life and liberty and equality before law.
Even commercial entities enjoy some fundamental rights, for e.g. all commercial entities are subject to law and the state cannot arbitrarily discriminate. Media enjoys the right against government censorship as a part of Article 19 – Freedom of Speech and Expression.
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Question 3 of 25
3. Question
2 pointsWhat is that which best defines the idea of ‘equality’ in a liberal democratic society?
Correct
Solution: B
The concept of equality implies that all people, as human beings, are entitled to the same rights and opportunities to develop their skills and talents, and to pursue their goals and ambitions.
This means that in a society people may differ with regard to their choices and preferences. They may also have different talents and skills which results in some being more successful in their chosen careers than others.
But just because only some become ace cricketers or successful lawyers, it does not follow that the society should be considered unequal.
In other words, it is not the lack of equality of status or wealth or privilege that is significant but the inequalities in peoples’ access to such basic goods, as education, health care, safe housing, that make for an unequal and unjust society.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The concept of equality implies that all people, as human beings, are entitled to the same rights and opportunities to develop their skills and talents, and to pursue their goals and ambitions.
This means that in a society people may differ with regard to their choices and preferences. They may also have different talents and skills which results in some being more successful in their chosen careers than others.
But just because only some become ace cricketers or successful lawyers, it does not follow that the society should be considered unequal.
In other words, it is not the lack of equality of status or wealth or privilege that is significant but the inequalities in peoples’ access to such basic goods, as education, health care, safe housing, that make for an unequal and unjust society.
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Question 4 of 25
4. Question
2 pointsThe Fundamental Rights promote the idea of political democracy as
1.They limit the authority of the Central government.
2.They secure vital political rights to the citizens of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Both the statements are correct.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Both the statements are correct.
-
Question 5 of 25
5. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements
1.Article 368 of the constitution deals with the powers of Parliament to amend the constitution and its procedure.
2.Constitution amendment bill can be introduced only by a minister.
3.President can neither withhold his assent to the bill nor return the bill for reconsideration of the Parliament
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Constitution bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the president.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Constitution bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the president.
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Question 6 of 25
6. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following provisions of constitution can be amended through simple majority?
1.Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.
2.Citizenship—acquisition and termination
3.Delimitation of constituencies.
4.Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure can be amended by special majority of Parliament and consent of states
Incorrect
Solution: D
Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure can be amended by special majority of Parliament and consent of states
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Question 7 of 25
7. Question
2 pointsIn the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution, which of the following entries is/are included in the Concurrent List?
1. Agriculture, including agricultural education and research.
2. Bankruptcy and insolvency
3. Prevention of cruelty to animals
4. Trade unions; industrial and labour disputesSelect the correct answer using the codes given below
Correct
Solution: B
Seventh Schedule: Division of powers between the Union and the States
in terms of List I (Union List), List II (State List) and List III (Concurrent List).
Presently, the Union List contains 100 subjects (originally 97), the state list
contains 61 subjects (originally 66) and the concurrent list contains 52
subjects (originally 47).
Agriculture, including agricultural education and research is a state subject
under schedule VII.Incorrect
Solution: B
Seventh Schedule: Division of powers between the Union and the States
in terms of List I (Union List), List II (State List) and List III (Concurrent List).
Presently, the Union List contains 100 subjects (originally 97), the state list
contains 61 subjects (originally 66) and the concurrent list contains 52
subjects (originally 47).
Agriculture, including agricultural education and research is a state subject
under schedule VII. -
Question 8 of 25
8. Question
2 pointsWith reference to the Financial Emergency under article 360, consider the following statement?
1. There is no maximum period prescribed for its operation.
2. The President cannot issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of the judges of the Supreme Court and the high court.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Article 360 empowers the president to proclaim a Financial Emergency if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen due to which the financial stability or credit of India or any part of its territory is threatened.
Once approved by both the Houses of Parliament, the Financial Emergency continues indefinitely till it is revoked. This implies two things:
- there is no maximum period prescribed for its operation; and
2. repeated parliamentary approval is not required for its continuation.
The consequences of the proclamation of a Financial Emergency are as
follows:- The executive authority of the Centre extends (a) to directing any state to observe such canons of financial propriety as are specified by it; and (b) to directions as the President may deem necessary and adequate for the purpose
- The President may issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of (a) all or any class of persons serving the Union; and (b) the judges of the Supreme Court and the high court.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Article 360 empowers the president to proclaim a Financial Emergency if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen due to which the financial stability or credit of India or any part of its territory is threatened.
Once approved by both the Houses of Parliament, the Financial Emergency continues indefinitely till it is revoked. This implies two things:
- there is no maximum period prescribed for its operation; and
2. repeated parliamentary approval is not required for its continuation.
The consequences of the proclamation of a Financial Emergency are as
follows:- The executive authority of the Centre extends (a) to directing any state to observe such canons of financial propriety as are specified by it; and (b) to directions as the President may deem necessary and adequate for the purpose
- The President may issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of (a) all or any class of persons serving the Union; and (b) the judges of the Supreme Court and the high court.
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Question 9 of 25
9. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Fundamental Rights
1.Some of them are available only to the citizens while others are available to all persons whether citizens, foreigners or legal persons like corporations or companies.
2.They are not sacrosanct or permanent. The Parliament can curtail or repeal them but only by a constitutional amendment act and not by an ordinary act.
3.Most of them are directly enforceable (self-executory) while a few of them can be enforced on the basis of a law made for giving effect to them.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
All statements are correct.
Incorrect
Solution: D
All statements are correct.
-
Question 10 of 25
10. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Fundamental Duties
1.The Parliament shall provide for the imposition of such penalty or punishment as may be considered appropriate for any non-compliance with or refusal to observe any of the duties.
2.No law imposing such penalty or punishment shall be called in question in any court on the ground of infringement of Fundamental Rights
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The Parliament may provide for the imposition of such penalty or punishment as may be considered appropriate for any non-compliance with or refusal to observe any of the duties.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The Parliament may provide for the imposition of such penalty or punishment as may be considered appropriate for any non-compliance with or refusal to observe any of the duties.
-
Question 11 of 25
11. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Government of India Act of 1935
1.It created a new office of the High Commissioner for India in London and transferred to him some of the functions hitherto performed by the Secretary of State for India.
2.It further extended the principle of communal representation by providing separate electorates for depressed classes (scheduled castes), women and labour (workers).
3.It abolished dyarchy in the provinces and introduced ‘provincial autonomy’ in its place.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Government of India Act of 1919 created a new office of the High Commissioner for India in London and transferred to him some of the functions hitherto performed by the Secretary of State for India.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Government of India Act of 1919 created a new office of the High Commissioner for India in London and transferred to him some of the functions hitherto performed by the Secretary of State for India.
-
Question 12 of 25
12. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements.
1.It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India and vested in him all civil and military powers.
2.It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a purely administrative body.
3.It provided that the company’s territories in India were held by it ‘in trust for His Majesty, His heirs and successors’.
The Act that provided for the above was?
Correct
Solution: B
This Act was the final step towards centralisation in British India.
It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India and vested in him all civil and military powers. Thus, the act created, for the first time, a Government of India having authority over the entire territorial area possessed by the British in India. Lord William Bentick was the first governor-general of India.
It deprived the governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers. The Governor-General of India was given exclusive legislative powers for the entire British India. The laws made under the previous acts were called as Regulations while laws made under this act were called as Acts.
It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a purely administrative body. It provided that the company’s territories in India were held by it ‘in trust for His Majesty, His heirs and successors’.
The Charter Act of 1833 attempted to introduce a system of open competition for selection of civil servants, and stated that the Indians should not be debarred from holding any place, office and employment under the Company. However, this provision was negated after opposition from the Court of Directors.
Incorrect
Solution: B
This Act was the final step towards centralisation in British India.
It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India and vested in him all civil and military powers. Thus, the act created, for the first time, a Government of India having authority over the entire territorial area possessed by the British in India. Lord William Bentick was the first governor-general of India.
It deprived the governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers. The Governor-General of India was given exclusive legislative powers for the entire British India. The laws made under the previous acts were called as Regulations while laws made under this act were called as Acts.
It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a purely administrative body. It provided that the company’s territories in India were held by it ‘in trust for His Majesty, His heirs and successors’.
The Charter Act of 1833 attempted to introduce a system of open competition for selection of civil servants, and stated that the Indians should not be debarred from holding any place, office and employment under the Company. However, this provision was negated after opposition from the Court of Directors.
-
Question 13 of 25
13. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements about the recently launched programme ‘PARIVESH’.
1.It is a web-based single-window system for environmental clearances from Central and State
level authorities only.
2. It seeks to get Environment, Forests, Wildlife clearances and not CRZ clearances.
3. It is under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.Which of the above statements given above is/are incorrect?
Correct
Solution: D
PARIVESH is a web based, role based workflow application which has been developed for online submission and monitoring of the proposals submitted by the proponents for seeking Environment, Forest, Wildlife and CRZ Clearances from Central, State and district level authorities.It automates the entire tracking of proposals which includes online submission of a new proposal, editing/updating the details of proposals and displays status of the proposals at each stage of the workflow
Incorrect
Solution: D
PARIVESH is a web based, role based workflow application which has been developed for online submission and monitoring of the proposals submitted by the proponents for seeking Environment, Forest, Wildlife and CRZ Clearances from Central, State and district level authorities.It automates the entire tracking of proposals which includes online submission of a new proposal, editing/updating the details of proposals and displays status of the proposals at each stage of the workflow
-
Question 14 of 25
14. Question
2 pointsRed Corner Notices, sometimes seen in the news, can be issued by
Correct
Solution: B
A Red Notice is a request to locate and provisionally arrest an individual pending extradition. It is issued by the General Secretariat at the request of a member country or an international tribunal based on a valid national arrest warrant. It is not an international arrest warrant.
INTERPOL cannot compel any member country to arrest an individual who is the subject of a Red Notice. Each member country decides for itself what legal value to give a Red Notice within their borders
Incorrect
Solution: B
A Red Notice is a request to locate and provisionally arrest an individual pending extradition. It is issued by the General Secretariat at the request of a member country or an international tribunal based on a valid national arrest warrant. It is not an international arrest warrant.
INTERPOL cannot compel any member country to arrest an individual who is the subject of a Red Notice. Each member country decides for itself what legal value to give a Red Notice within their borders
-
Question 15 of 25
15. Question
2 pointsThe ‘EDGE of Existence’ programme, sometimes in the news, is related to
Correct
Solution: B
The EDGE of Existence programme is the only global conservation initiative to focus specifically on threatened species that represent a significant amount of unique evolutionary history.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The EDGE of Existence programme is the only global conservation initiative to focus specifically on threatened species that represent a significant amount of unique evolutionary history.
-
Question 16 of 25
16. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Coffee Board of India
1.It is an organisation managed by the Ministry of agriculture and farmers welfare and to promote Coffee production.
2.It provides financial assistance to farmers.
3.Coffee was first introduced in India in Baba Budan Giri hill ranges of Karnataka in the 17th
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Coffee Board of India is an organisation managed by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry to promote Coffee Production.
It’s a statutory body established by the Coffee Act, 1942.
Coffee came to India well before the East India Company, through an Indian Sufi saint ‘Baba Budan’. The first record of coffee growing in India is following the introduction of coffee beans from Yemen by Baba Budan to the hills of Chikamangalur.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Coffee Board of India is an organisation managed by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry to promote Coffee Production.
It’s a statutory body established by the Coffee Act, 1942.
Coffee came to India well before the East India Company, through an Indian Sufi saint ‘Baba Budan’. The first record of coffee growing in India is following the introduction of coffee beans from Yemen by Baba Budan to the hills of Chikamangalur.
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Question 17 of 25
17. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Dam Rehabilitation and Improvement Project
1.It is a six year project implemented by the Ministry of Water Resources to improve safety and operational performance of dams.
2.It is implemented with the assistance from the Asian Development Bank.
3.It aims to promote new technologies and improve institutional capacities for dam safety.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
It is implemented with the assistance from the World Bank in the following states Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Uttarakhand and Jharkhand.
Incorrect
Solution: A
It is implemented with the assistance from the World Bank in the following states Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Uttarakhand and Jharkhand.
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Question 18 of 25
18. Question
2 pointsQuit Line Number, sometime seen in the news, is related to
Correct
Solution: A
India has become the first and only SAARC country to have a quit-line number on tobacco products.
The Union Health Ministry has already made 85% pictorial health warning mandatory on both sides of packets containing cigarettes, bidis, and chewing tobacco. The quit-line number will be printed on all tobacco products manufactured after September 1, 2018.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/helpline-for-tobacco-users/article25031156.ece
Incorrect
Solution: A
India has become the first and only SAARC country to have a quit-line number on tobacco products.
The Union Health Ministry has already made 85% pictorial health warning mandatory on both sides of packets containing cigarettes, bidis, and chewing tobacco. The quit-line number will be printed on all tobacco products manufactured after September 1, 2018.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/helpline-for-tobacco-users/article25031156.ece
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Question 19 of 25
19. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements
1. Poshan Maah is an awareness drive of the Woman and Child development ministry and NITI Aayog to create grass root awareness about nutrition.
2. Poshan Abhiyaan is a multi-ministerial convergence mission with the vision to ensure attainment of malnutrition free India by 2022.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Poshan Maah is an awareness drive of the Woman and child development ministry and NITI Aayog to create grass root awareness about Nutrition.
The programme focuses on 8 themes – Antenatal Care, Optimal Breastfeeding (Early & Exclusive), Complementary Feeding, Anemia, Growth Monitoring, Girls-education, diet, right age of Marriage, Hygiene & Sanitation, and Food Fortification.
POSHAN Abhiyaan is a multi-ministerial convergence mission with the vision to ensure attainment of malnutrition free India by 2022.
The objective of POSHAN Abhiyaan to reduce stunting in identified Districts of India with the highest malnutrition burden by improving utilization of key Anganwadi Services and improving the quality of Anganwadi Services delivery. Its aim to ensure holistic development and adequate nutrition for pregnant women, mothers and children.
https://www.india.gov.in/spotlight/poshan-abhiyaan-pms-overarching-scheme-holistic-nourishment
Incorrect
Solution: C
Poshan Maah is an awareness drive of the Woman and child development ministry and NITI Aayog to create grass root awareness about Nutrition.
The programme focuses on 8 themes – Antenatal Care, Optimal Breastfeeding (Early & Exclusive), Complementary Feeding, Anemia, Growth Monitoring, Girls-education, diet, right age of Marriage, Hygiene & Sanitation, and Food Fortification.
POSHAN Abhiyaan is a multi-ministerial convergence mission with the vision to ensure attainment of malnutrition free India by 2022.
The objective of POSHAN Abhiyaan to reduce stunting in identified Districts of India with the highest malnutrition burden by improving utilization of key Anganwadi Services and improving the quality of Anganwadi Services delivery. Its aim to ensure holistic development and adequate nutrition for pregnant women, mothers and children.
https://www.india.gov.in/spotlight/poshan-abhiyaan-pms-overarching-scheme-holistic-nourishment
-
Question 20 of 25
20. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY)
1.It is a Maternity Benefit Programme that is implemented in all the districts of the country in accordance with the provision of the National Food Security Act, 2013.
2.All Pregnant Women and Lactating Mothers, including PW&LM who are in regular employment with the Central Government or the State Governments or PSUs are eligible for the scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
All Pregnant Women and Lactating Mothers, excluding PW&LM who are in regular employment with the Central Government or the State Governments or PSUs are eligible for the scheme.
Incorrect
Solution: A
All Pregnant Women and Lactating Mothers, excluding PW&LM who are in regular employment with the Central Government or the State Governments or PSUs are eligible for the scheme.
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Question 21 of 25
21. Question
2 pointsConsider the following pairs
Place in News State/Country
- Idlib Province Iraq
- Budhi Gandaki Nepal
- Pakyong Arunachal Pradesh
Which of the pairs given above is/are matched correctly
Correct
Solution: A
Idlib Province is located in Syria.
Pakyong Airport is the Sikkim’s first airport, will put Sikkim on the aviation map of the country. Sikkim was the only state in the country without a functional airport.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Idlib Province is located in Syria.
Pakyong Airport is the Sikkim’s first airport, will put Sikkim on the aviation map of the country. Sikkim was the only state in the country without a functional airport.
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Question 22 of 25
22. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Bird Life International
1.It is an intergovernmental partnership for the conservation of birds, their habitats and global biodiversity.
2.It publishes a quarterly magazine called World Birdwatch
3.Bird Life International is the official Red List authority for birds, for the IUCN.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Bird Life International is a global partnership of conservation organisations that strives to conserve birds, their habitats and global biodiversity.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Bird Life International is a global partnership of conservation organisations that strives to conserve birds, their habitats and global biodiversity.
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Question 23 of 25
23. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
1.It is a statutory organisation, was constituted in September, 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
2.It serves as a field formation and also provides technical services to the Ministry of Environment and Forests of the provisions of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
3.It co-ordinate the activities of the State Board and resolve disputes among them.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Question 24 of 25
24. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements
1.The Hornbill Watch initiative is an interactive web interface that allows a person to report on hornbills anywhere in India.
2. Hornbills are largely believed to be ‘farmers of the forest’ as they disperse the seeds of many tropical trees and keep the forest alive.
3. Narcondam hornbill is endemic to Western Ghats
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The Narcondam hornbill is a species of hornbill in the Bucerotidae family. It is endemic to the Indian island of Narcondam in the Andamans.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The Narcondam hornbill is a species of hornbill in the Bucerotidae family. It is endemic to the Indian island of Narcondam in the Andamans.
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Question 25 of 25
25. Question
2 pointsSnow Leopard is naturally found in which of the following states?
1. Jammu and Kashmir
2. Arunachal Pradesh
3. Sikkim
4. Uttar Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution: D
Snow Leopard is not naturally found in Uttar Pradesh
Incorrect
Solution: D
Snow Leopard is not naturally found in Uttar Pradesh