INSIGHTS IAS REVISION PLAN FOR PRELIMS 2019 – DAILY REVISION TESTS: TEST-43
INSIGHTS IAS REVISION PLAN FOR PRELIMS 2019 - DAILY REVISION TESTS
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Welcome to Insights IAS Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam – 2019.
If you are wondering why these questions are posted, please refer to the detailed Timetable provided HERE.
These questions are carefully framed to help you improve various skills and knowledge necessary to face uncertain, unpredictable and difficult questions in real prelims exam. This test is NOT about your scores. It’s about an opportunity to make mistakes and learn from these mistakes now itself. Also, these tests are NOT meant to give you EXPECTED questions for the upcoming prelims. So, don’t judge these questions unless there is an error (factual or typo) in these questions. To do really well in these small tests, REVISION is the KEY. Do follow our Revision Timetable religiously. It WILL help you clear Prelims – 2019.
Once you give this test, please POST your scores in the comment box. Also post how you could tackle certain questions – like, based on what logic or skill. This will help people who have trouble eliminating wrong options get a chance to learn from your expertise.
Wish you Good Luck! 🙂
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Question 1 of 25
1. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements
- Pitt’s India Act of 1784 designated the Governor of Bengal as the ‘Governor-General of Bengal’ and created an Executive Council of four members to assist him
- Regulating Act of 1773 distinguished between the commercial and political functions of the Company
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Regulating Act of 1773 designated the Governor of Bengal as the ‘Governor-General of Bengal’ and created an Executive Council of four members to assist him
Pitt’s India Act of 1784 distinguished between the commercial and political functions of the Company
Incorrect
Solution: D
Regulating Act of 1773 designated the Governor of Bengal as the ‘Governor-General of Bengal’ and created an Executive Council of four members to assist him
Pitt’s India Act of 1784 distinguished between the commercial and political functions of the Company
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Question 2 of 25
2. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Charter Act of 1833
1.It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India and vested in him all civil and military powers.
- It deprived the governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers.
- It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a purely administrative body
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Incorrect
Solution: D
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Question 3 of 25
3. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following are the recommendation of Simon Commission?
1.Extension of responsible government in the provinces.
2.Establishment of a federation of British India
- Abolition of communal electorate
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Simon commission submitted its report in 1930 and recommended the abolition of dyarchy, extension of responsible government in the provinces, establishment of a federation of British India and princely states, continuation of communal electorate.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Simon commission submitted its report in 1930 and recommended the abolition of dyarchy, extension of responsible government in the provinces, establishment of a federation of British India and princely states, continuation of communal electorate.
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Question 4 of 25
4. Question
2 pointsConsider the following pairs regarding first cabinet of Free India (1947)
Members Portfolio Held
- B.R. Ambedkar – Law
- Rajendra Prasad – External Affairs & Commonwealth Relations
- Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel – Home
Which of the pairs given above is/are matched correctly?
Correct
Solution: C
Dr. Rajendra Prasad – Food & Agriculture
Incorrect
Solution: C
Dr. Rajendra Prasad – Food & Agriculture
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Question 5 of 25
5. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Constituent assembly composition
1.The representatives of each community were to be elected by members of that community in the provincial legislative assembly
2.The representatives of princely states were to be nominated by the heads of the princely states.
3.The Assembly included all important personalities of India at that time, with the exception of Mahatma Gandhi and M A Jinnah.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
The Assembly included all important personalities of India at that time, with the exception of Mahatma Gandhi and M A Jinnah.
Incorrect
Solution: D
The Assembly included all important personalities of India at that time, with the exception of Mahatma Gandhi and M A Jinnah.
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Question 6 of 25
6. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Preamble
1.44th Constitutional Amendment Act (1976), which added three new words—socialist, secular and integrity.
2.Kesavananda Bharati case17 (1973), the Supreme Court opinion and held that Preamble is a part of the Constitution.
3.The Preamble is neither a source of power to legislature nor a prohibition upon the powers of legislature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976), which added three new words—socialist, secular and integrity.
Incorrect
Solution: A
42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976), which added three new words—socialist, secular and integrity.
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Question 7 of 25
7. Question
2 pointsTerritory of India includes which of the following categories
1. Territories of the states
2. Union territories
3. Territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any timeSelect the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution: D
All the statements given above are correct.
According to Article 1, the territory of India can be classified into three categories:
- Territories of the states
- Union territories
- Territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any time.
Incorrect
Solution: D
All the statements given above are correct.
According to Article 1, the territory of India can be classified into three categories:
- Territories of the states
- Union territories
- Territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any time.
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Question 8 of 25
8. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements
1.Parliament can increase the area of any state without the consent of state legislature.
2.Parliament can alter the name of any state without the consent of state legislature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Article 3 authorises the Parliament to:
(a) form a new state by separation of territory from any state or by uniting two or more states orvparts of states or by uniting any territory to a part of any state,
(b) increase the area of any state,
(c) diminish the area of any state,
(d) alter the boundaries of any state, and
(e) alter the name of any state without the consent of the state.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Article 3 authorises the Parliament to:
(a) form a new state by separation of territory from any state or by uniting two or more states orvparts of states or by uniting any territory to a part of any state,
(b) increase the area of any state,
(c) diminish the area of any state,
(d) alter the boundaries of any state, and
(e) alter the name of any state without the consent of the state.
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Question 9 of 25
9. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following rights Constitution confers on the citizens of India and denies the same to aliens?
1.Right against discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste etc.
2.Right to freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement etc.
3.Right to life
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution: A
Right to life is guaranteed to both citizens and aliens.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Right to life is guaranteed to both citizens and aliens.
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Question 10 of 25
10. Question
2 pointsArticle 1(1) of our Constitution says – “India that is Bharat, shall be a Union
of states”. This declaration signifies
1. That the Union of India has resulted out of an agreement between the states.
2. The component units/states have no right to secede from the Union.Select the correct answer using code given below
Correct
Solution: B
Article 1 describes India, that is, Bharat as a ‘Union of States’ rather than a
‘Federation of States’.According to Dr B R Ambedkar, the phrase ‘Union of States’ has been preferred to ‘Federation of States’ for two reasons: one, the Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement among the states like the American Federation; and two, the states have no right to secede from the federation.
The federation is an Union because it is indestructible. The country is an integral whole and divided into different states only for the convenience of administration.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Article 1 describes India, that is, Bharat as a ‘Union of States’ rather than a
‘Federation of States’.According to Dr B R Ambedkar, the phrase ‘Union of States’ has been preferred to ‘Federation of States’ for two reasons: one, the Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement among the states like the American Federation; and two, the states have no right to secede from the federation.
The federation is an Union because it is indestructible. The country is an integral whole and divided into different states only for the convenience of administration.
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Question 11 of 25
11. Question
2 pointsWith reference to the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA), consider the following statements:
1. The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) has been constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 to provide free Legal Services to the weaker sections of the society.
2. The President of India is the Patron-in-Chief of the Authority.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) has been constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 to provide free Legal Services to the weaker sections of the society and to organize Lok Adalats for amicable settlement of disputes.The Chief Justice of India is patron-in-chief of NALSA while second seniormost judge of Supreme Court of India is the Executive-Chairman. In every State, State Legal Services Authority has been constituted to give effect to the policies and directions of the NALSA and to give free legal services to the people and conduct Lok Adalats in the State.
Incorrect
Solution: A
The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) has been constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 to provide free Legal Services to the weaker sections of the society and to organize Lok Adalats for amicable settlement of disputes.The Chief Justice of India is patron-in-chief of NALSA while second seniormost judge of Supreme Court of India is the Executive-Chairman. In every State, State Legal Services Authority has been constituted to give effect to the policies and directions of the NALSA and to give free legal services to the people and conduct Lok Adalats in the State.
-
Question 12 of 25
12. Question
2 pointsWhich one of the following Directive Principles was not originally provided for in the Constitution of India?
Correct
Solution: B
The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added four new Directive Principles to the original list.
They require the State:
1. To secure opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39).
2. To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor
(Article 39 A).
3. To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of
industries (Article 43 A).
4. To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild
life (Article 48 A)Incorrect
Solution: B
The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added four new Directive Principles to the original list.
They require the State:
1. To secure opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39).
2. To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor
(Article 39 A).
3. To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of
industries (Article 43 A).
4. To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild
life (Article 48 A) -
Question 13 of 25
13. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statement regarding Fundamental Rights
1.Fundamental Rights in our Constitution are more elaborate than those found in the Constitution of any other country in the world, including the USA.
2.Fundamental Rights are named so because they are guaranteed and protected by the Supreme Court
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Fundamental Rights are named so because they are guaranteed and protected by the Constitution.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Fundamental Rights are named so because they are guaranteed and protected by the Constitution.
-
Question 14 of 25
14. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following is/are the federal features of the Indian Constitution?
1.The Constitution is written and not easily amendable.
2.State governments derive authority from the Centre.
3.Equal representation of all states in Rajya Sabha
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
Solution: A
State governments derive their authority from the constitution, not the Centre. The states are given representation in the Rajya Sabha on the basis of population.
Incorrect
Solution: A
State governments derive their authority from the constitution, not the Centre. The states are given representation in the Rajya Sabha on the basis of population.
-
Question 15 of 25
15. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements
1.“Ease of Living Index” ranking is released by NITI Ayog.
2.Andhra Pradesh has topped the ‘Ease of Living Index’ 2018 ranking followed by Odisha and Madhya Pradesh
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
“Ease of Living Index” ranking is released by Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA)
Incorrect
Solution: B
“Ease of Living Index” ranking is released by Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA)
-
Question 16 of 25
16. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements regarding ‘Multidimensional Poverty Index’
1.Multidimensional Poverty Index was developed in 2010 by the Oxford Poverty & Human Development Initiative and the United Nations Development Programme.
2.Global MPI 2018 shows that India has reduced its poverty rate drastically from 55% to 28% in ten years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
-
Question 17 of 25
17. Question
2 points‘Future of Jobs’ report, sometime seen in the news, is released by
-
Question 18 of 25
18. Question
2 pointsSchengen Area, often seen in news, is in
Correct
Solution: C
The Schengen Area is an area comprising 26 European states that have officially abolished all passport and all other types of border control at their mutual borders.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The Schengen Area is an area comprising 26 European states that have officially abolished all passport and all other types of border control at their mutual borders.
-
Question 19 of 25
19. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following countries are the part of European Union
1.Poland
2.Greece
3.Germany
4.Norway
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution: D
Norway is not part of European Union.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Norway is not part of European Union.
-
Question 20 of 25
20. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements International Criminal Court (ICC)
1.It is an intergovernmental organization and international tribunal situated in Hague, Netherlands.
2.It prosecutes and bring to justice those responsible for the worst crimes – genocide, crimes against humanity, and war crimes.
3.Almost all the member of UN are members/parties to ICC
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
The Rome Statute of the International Criminal Court is the treaty that established the International Criminal Court (ICC). Only 123 states are party to the ICC. 41 United Nations member states including China and India have neither signed nor acceded to the Rome Statute.
Incorrect
Solution: D
The Rome Statute of the International Criminal Court is the treaty that established the International Criminal Court (ICC). Only 123 states are party to the ICC. 41 United Nations member states including China and India have neither signed nor acceded to the Rome Statute.
-
Question 21 of 25
21. Question
2 pointsGaza Strip, West Bank often seen in news, is in
Correct
Solution: A
Incorrect
Solution: A
-
Question 22 of 25
22. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements
1.Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Agreement (LEMOA) is foundational agreement for mutual logistics support between India and UK.
2. MILEX-2018 is the first-ever anti-terror military exercise of BIMSTEC
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Agreement (LEMOA) is foundational agreement for mutual logistics support between India and US.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Agreement (LEMOA) is foundational agreement for mutual logistics support between India and US.
-
Question 23 of 25
23. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements
1.The Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission is a body with functional autonomy within UNESCO for marine science.
2.Indian Ocean Wave Exercise 2018 (IOWave18) is a major Indian ocean-wide tsunami mock drill organised by the Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission (IOC)
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
-
Question 24 of 25
24. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements
1.A person belonging to a Scheduled Caste (SC) or Scheduled Tribe (ST) in a state will not be deemed to be SC or ST in another state to which he/ she migrates for the purpose of employment or education.
2.E-Courts is a mission mode Pan-India Project monitored and funded by Department of Justice, Ministry of Law and Justice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Both the statements are correct.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Both the statements are correct.
-
Question 25 of 25
25. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements regarding ‘Section 377’
1.Supreme Court in recent judgment unanimously held that criminalization of private consensual sexual conduct between adults of the same sex under section 377 of the IPC is unconstitutional.
2.Court has opinion that sexual orientation and choice of a partner are part of the fundamental right to privacy
3.Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code was introduced during the British rule of India in 1860. It came into force in 1862
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
All the statements are correct.
Incorrect
Solution: D
All the statements are correct.
