INSIGHTS IAS REVISION PLAN FOR PRELIMS 2019 – DAILY REVISION TESTS: TEST-17
INSIGHTS IAS REVISION PLAN FOR PRELIMS 2019 - DAILY REVISION TESTS
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Welcome to Insights IAS Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam – 2019.
If you are wondering why these questions are posted, please refer to the detailed Timetable provided HERE.
These questions are carefully framed to help you improve various skills and knowledge necessary to face uncertain, unpredictable and difficult questions in real prelims exam. This test is NOT about your scores. It’s about an opportunity to make mistakes and learn from these mistakes now itself. Also, these tests are NOT meant to give you EXPECTED questions for the upcoming prelims. So, don’t judge these questions unless there is an error (factual or typo) in these questions. To do really well in these small tests, REVISION is the KEY. Do follow our Revision Timetable religiously. It WILL help you clear Prelims – 2019.
Once you give this test, please POST your scores in the comment box. Also post how you could tackle certain questions – like, based on what logic or skill. This will help people who have trouble eliminating wrong options get a chance to learn from your expertise.
Wish you Good Luck! 🙂
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Question 1 of 25
1. Question
2 pointsOrganizing the All India Whips Conference is one of the important functions assigned to the
Correct
Solution: B
Organizing the All India Whips Conference is one of the functions assigned to the Ministry of Parliamentary affairs, under Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961 made under article 77(3) of the Constitution.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Organizing the All India Whips Conference is one of the functions assigned to the Ministry of Parliamentary affairs, under Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961 made under article 77(3) of the Constitution.
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Question 2 of 25
2. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements
1.Governor in consultation with the High court appoints and promotes district judge in a state.
- The pardoning power of the president is an executive action and is independent of the judiciary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Both the statements are correct.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Both the statements are correct.
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Question 3 of 25
3. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following departments comes under the direct control Prime Minister’s Office (PMO)?
1.Department of Atomic Energy
2.Department of Space
- Department of Defence
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution: B
Department of defence comes under Ministry of Defence, which is in turn headed by Defence Minister.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Department of defence comes under Ministry of Defence, which is in turn headed by Defence Minister.
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Question 4 of 25
4. Question
2 pointsWith reference to the various kinds of question asked during the Question
Hour, consider the following statements:
1. A starred question requires a written answer and hence supplementary questions cannot follow.
2. An unstarred question, requires an oral answer and hence, supplementary questions can follow.
3. A short notice question is one that is asked by giving a notice of less than five days.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
The first hour of every parliamentary sitting is slotted for Question Hour.
During this time, the members ask questions and the ministers usually give
answers. The questions are of three kinds, namely, starred, unstarred and
short notice.A starred question (distinguished by an asterisk) requires an oral answer
and hence supplementary questions can follow.An unstarred question, on the other hand, requires a written answer and
hence, supplementary questions cannot follow.A short notice question is one that is asked by giving a notice of less than
ten days. It is answered orally.Incorrect
Solution: D
The first hour of every parliamentary sitting is slotted for Question Hour.
During this time, the members ask questions and the ministers usually give
answers. The questions are of three kinds, namely, starred, unstarred and
short notice.A starred question (distinguished by an asterisk) requires an oral answer
and hence supplementary questions can follow.An unstarred question, on the other hand, requires a written answer and
hence, supplementary questions cannot follow.A short notice question is one that is asked by giving a notice of less than
ten days. It is answered orally. -
Question 5 of 25
5. Question
2 pointsWith reference to the Special Leave to appeal by the Supreme Court, consider the following statements:
1. The Supreme Court is authorized to grant in its discretion special leave to appeal from any judgment in any matter passed by any court or tribunal in the country including military tribunal and court martial.
2. It can be granted in any judgment whether final or interlocutory.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The Supreme Court is authorised to grant in its discretion special leave to appeal from any judgement in any matter passed by any court or tribunal in the country (except military tribunal and court martial). This provision contains the four aspects as under:
- It is a discretionary power and hence, cannot be claimed as a matter of right.
2. It can be granted in any judgement whether final or interlocutory.
3. It may be related to any matter—constitutional, civil, criminal, income tax, labour, revenue, advocates, etc.
4. It can be granted against any court or tribunal and not necessarily against a high court (except a military court).
Incorrect
Solution: B
The Supreme Court is authorised to grant in its discretion special leave to appeal from any judgement in any matter passed by any court or tribunal in the country (except military tribunal and court martial). This provision contains the four aspects as under:
- It is a discretionary power and hence, cannot be claimed as a matter of right.
2. It can be granted in any judgement whether final or interlocutory.
3. It may be related to any matter—constitutional, civil, criminal, income tax, labour, revenue, advocates, etc.
4. It can be granted against any court or tribunal and not necessarily against a high court (except a military court).
-
Question 6 of 25
6. Question
2 pointsEighth Schedule of Indian Constitution recognizes which of the following languages?
1.Santhali
2.Nepali
3.Sanskrit
4.Kashmiri
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
Solution: D
The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution recognizes following languages
(1) Assamese, (2) Bengali, (3) Gujarati, (4) Hindi, (5) Kannada, (6) Kashmiri, (7) Konkani, (8) Malayalam, (9) Manipuri, (10) Marathi, (11) Nepali, (12) Oriya, (13) Punjabi, (14) Sanskrit, (15) Sindhi, (16) Tamil, (17) Telugu, (18) Urdu (19) Bodo, (20) Santhali, (21) Maithili and (22) Dogri.
Incorrect
Solution: D
The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution recognizes following languages
(1) Assamese, (2) Bengali, (3) Gujarati, (4) Hindi, (5) Kannada, (6) Kashmiri, (7) Konkani, (8) Malayalam, (9) Manipuri, (10) Marathi, (11) Nepali, (12) Oriya, (13) Punjabi, (14) Sanskrit, (15) Sindhi, (16) Tamil, (17) Telugu, (18) Urdu (19) Bodo, (20) Santhali, (21) Maithili and (22) Dogri.
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Question 7 of 25
7. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements
1.A No-Confidence Motion should state the reasons for its adoption in the Lok Sabha.
2.If Censure motion is passed in the Lok Sabha, the council of ministers need not resign from the office.
3.Adjournment Motion is introduced in the Parliament to draw attention of the House to a definite matter of urgent public importance and needs the support of 100 members to be admitted.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Adjournment Motion is introduced in the Parliament to draw attention of the House to a definite matter of urgent public importance and needs the support of 50 members to be admitted.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Adjournment Motion is introduced in the Parliament to draw attention of the House to a definite matter of urgent public importance and needs the support of 50 members to be admitted.
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Question 8 of 25
8. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements
1.Vice-President is a member and chairman of Council of States.
2.Vice-President can be removed only through a formal impeachment process similar to that of
3. Dr S. Radhakrishnan was elected as Vice President continuously for two terms.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Vice-President is not a member, however he/she is the chairman of Council of States. There is no exact procedure mentioned in Indian Constitution for the removal of Vice President.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Vice-President is not a member, however he/she is the chairman of Council of States. There is no exact procedure mentioned in Indian Constitution for the removal of Vice President.
-
Question 9 of 25
9. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Lok Sabha
1.Lok Sabha has a normal term of 5 years,after which it automatically dissolves.
2.Revocation of National Emergency is the exclusivepower of Lok Sabha
3.Dissolution of Lok Sabha by thepresident is subjected to judicial review.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Dissolution of Lok Sabha by the president is not subjected to judicial review.
Even President of India can revoke the national emergency.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Dissolution of Lok Sabha by the president is not subjected to judicial review.
Even President of India can revoke the national emergency.
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Question 10 of 25
10. Question
2 pointsWith reference of the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following statements:
1.He/ She hold the office during the pleasure of the President.
2.He/ She need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her election.
3.If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Each House of Parliament has its own presiding officer. There is a Speaker and a Deputy Speaker for the Lok Sabha and a Chairman and a Deputy Chairman for the Rajya Sabha. A panel of chairpersons for the Lok Sabha and a panel of vice-chairpersons for the Rajya Sabha is also appointed.
The Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members. That means he should have been already a member of Loksabha.
He is provided with a security of tenure. He can be removed only by a resolution passed by the Lok Sabha by an absolute majority (ie, a majority of the total members of the House)
He can resign by writing to the Deputy Speaker.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Each House of Parliament has its own presiding officer. There is a Speaker and a Deputy Speaker for the Lok Sabha and a Chairman and a Deputy Chairman for the Rajya Sabha. A panel of chairpersons for the Lok Sabha and a panel of vice-chairpersons for the Rajya Sabha is also appointed.
The Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members. That means he should have been already a member of Loksabha.
He is provided with a security of tenure. He can be removed only by a resolution passed by the Lok Sabha by an absolute majority (ie, a majority of the total members of the House)
He can resign by writing to the Deputy Speaker.
-
Question 11 of 25
11. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements
1.Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the Parliament.
2.Chairman of Rajya Sabha preside over a joint sitting of the two houses of the Parliament in the absence of Speaker.
3.Resignation or death of an incumbent Chief Minister dissolves the Council of Ministers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the Loka Sabha. Chairman of Rajya Sabha cannot preside over a joint sitting of the two houses of the Parliament in any circumstance.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the Loka Sabha. Chairman of Rajya Sabha cannot preside over a joint sitting of the two houses of the Parliament in any circumstance.
-
Question 12 of 25
12. Question
2 pointsWith reference to the power of judicial review of high courts, consider the following statements
1.High court can review the laws enacted by state legislatures only and not the ones enacted by the Parliament.
2.High court cannot interpret the Constitution while reviewing any law or order passed by the government, as Supreme Court is the sole interpreter of Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Both the statements are incorrect. High court can review the laws enacted by Parliament. . High court can interpret the Constitution while reviewing any law or order passed by the government.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Both the statements are incorrect. High court can review the laws enacted by Parliament. . High court can interpret the Constitution while reviewing any law or order passed by the government.
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Question 13 of 25
13. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Committee on Public Accounts
1.It is constituted each year for examination of accounts showing the appropriation of sums granted by Parliament for expenditure of Government of India.
2.The Committee consists of 22 members comprising 15 members elected by Lok Sabha 7 members elected by Rajya Sabha.
3.A Minister is not eligible to be elected as a member of the Committee.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
All the statements are correct.
Incorrect
Solution: D
All the statements are correct.
-
Question 14 of 25
14. Question
2 pointsArticle 110 of the Constitution deals with the definition of money bills. It states that a bill is deemed to be a money bill if it contains ‘only’ provisions dealing with
1.The imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax
2.The regulation of the borrowing of money by the Union government.
3.The appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Article 110 of the Constitution deals with the definition of money bills. It states that a bill is deemed
to be a money bill if it contains ‘only’ provisions dealing with all or any of the following matters:- The imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax;
2. The regulation of the borrowing of money by the Union government;
3. The custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the contingency fund of India, the payment of
moneys into or the withdrawal of money from any such fund;
4. The appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India;
5. Declaration of any expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India or increasing the
amount of any such expenditure;
6. The receipt of money on account of the Consolidated Fund of India or the public account of
India or the custody or issue of such money, or the audit of the accounts of the Union or of a
state; or
Any matter incidental to any of the matters specified above.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Article 110 of the Constitution deals with the definition of money bills. It states that a bill is deemed
to be a money bill if it contains ‘only’ provisions dealing with all or any of the following matters:- The imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax;
2. The regulation of the borrowing of money by the Union government;
3. The custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the contingency fund of India, the payment of
moneys into or the withdrawal of money from any such fund;
4. The appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India;
5. Declaration of any expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India or increasing the
amount of any such expenditure;
6. The receipt of money on account of the Consolidated Fund of India or the public account of
India or the custody or issue of such money, or the audit of the accounts of the Union or of a
state; or
Any matter incidental to any of the matters specified above.
-
Question 15 of 25
15. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements
1.Election Commission can take suo-moto decision to disqualify a Member of Parliament.
2.President should consult the Chief Minister of the state while appointing the Governor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Election Commission cannot take suo-moto decision to disqualify a Member of Parliament.
President may consult the Chief Minister of the state while appointing the Governor. It is not mandatory.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Election Commission cannot take suo-moto decision to disqualify a Member of Parliament.
President may consult the Chief Minister of the state while appointing the Governor. It is not mandatory.
-
Question 16 of 25
16. Question
2 pointsWith reference to the Zonal Councils, consider the following statements
1. Zonal Councils are established by the States Reorganization Act of 1956.
2. Prime Minister is the common chairman of the five zonal councils.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
The Zonal Councils are the statutory bodies. They are established by an Act of
the Parliament, that is, States Reorganisation Act of 1956. The act divided
the country into five zones (Northern, Central, Eastern, Western and
Southern) and provided a zonal council for each zone.The home minister of Central government is the common chairman of the
five zonal councils. Each chief minister acts as a vice-chairman of the
council by rotation, holding office for a period of one year at a time.Incorrect
Solution: A
The Zonal Councils are the statutory bodies. They are established by an Act of
the Parliament, that is, States Reorganisation Act of 1956. The act divided
the country into five zones (Northern, Central, Eastern, Western and
Southern) and provided a zonal council for each zone.The home minister of Central government is the common chairman of the
five zonal councils. Each chief minister acts as a vice-chairman of the
council by rotation, holding office for a period of one year at a time. -
Question 17 of 25
17. Question
2 pointsConsider the following pairs:
Union Territory Name of High Court
- Andaman and Nicobar Islands Madras High Court
- Lakshadweep Islands High Court of Kerala
- Daman and Diu High Court of Gujarat
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: A
Territorial Jurisdiction of Bombay High Court: Maharashta, Goa, Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and DiuTerritorial Jurisdiction of Calcutta High Court: West Bengal and Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
Territorial Jurisdiction of Kerala High Court: Kerala and Lakshadweep.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Territorial Jurisdiction of Bombay High Court: Maharashta, Goa, Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and DiuTerritorial Jurisdiction of Calcutta High Court: West Bengal and Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
Territorial Jurisdiction of Kerala High Court: Kerala and Lakshadweep.
-
Question 18 of 25
18. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements
1.Cabinet Committees are constituted under the provisions of Indian Constitution.
2.Cabinet committee on Parliamentary affairs is chaired by Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs.
3.Cabinet word is not mentioned in Indian Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Cabinet Committees are not constituted under the provisions of Indian Constitution. It is an arrangement of executive.
Cabinet committee on parliamentary affairs chaired by Ministry of Home Affairs.
Cabinet word is mentioned in Indian Constitution.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Cabinet Committees are not constituted under the provisions of Indian Constitution. It is an arrangement of executive.
Cabinet committee on parliamentary affairs chaired by Ministry of Home Affairs.
Cabinet word is mentioned in Indian Constitution.
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Question 19 of 25
19. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements regarding ‘Inter State Water Disputes’
1.Article 262 provides that Parliament alone can make laws on Inter-state water disputes.
2.Parliament may restrict the jurisdiction of Supreme Court regarding Inter State Water Disputes
3.The decision of an Inter-State Water dispute Tribunal is final and binding on the parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
All the statements are correct.
Incorrect
Solution: D
All the statements are correct.
-
Question 20 of 25
20. Question
2 pointsConsider the following events with respect to the Union of India.
- Formation of the State of Nagaland
2. States Reorganization Act
3. Formation of the State of Haryana
4. Formation of the State of Gujarat
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above events?
Correct
Solution: D
By the States Reorganisation Act (1956) and the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act (1956), the distinction between Part-A and Part-B states was done away with and Part-C states were abolished.
In 1960, the bilingual state of Bombay was divided into two separate states—Maharashtra for Marathi-speaking people and Gujarat for Gujarat is peaking people.
Gujarat was established as the 15th state of the Indian Union.
In 1963, the State of Nagaland was formed by taking the Naga Hills and Tuensang area out of the state of Assam. This was done to satisfy the movement of the hostile Nagas. However, before giving Nagaland the status of the 16th state of the Indian Union, it was placed under the control of governor of Assam in 1961.
In 1966, the State of Punjab was bifurcated to create Haryana, the 17th state of the Indian Union, and the union territory of Chandigarh.
Incorrect
Solution: D
By the States Reorganisation Act (1956) and the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act (1956), the distinction between Part-A and Part-B states was done away with and Part-C states were abolished.
In 1960, the bilingual state of Bombay was divided into two separate states—Maharashtra for Marathi-speaking people and Gujarat for Gujarat is peaking people.
Gujarat was established as the 15th state of the Indian Union.
In 1963, the State of Nagaland was formed by taking the Naga Hills and Tuensang area out of the state of Assam. This was done to satisfy the movement of the hostile Nagas. However, before giving Nagaland the status of the 16th state of the Indian Union, it was placed under the control of governor of Assam in 1961.
In 1966, the State of Punjab was bifurcated to create Haryana, the 17th state of the Indian Union, and the union territory of Chandigarh.
- Formation of the State of Nagaland
-
Question 21 of 25
21. Question
2 pointsWhy ‘Lantana camara’ plant is often mentioned in news?
Correct
Solution: B
Lantana (Lantana camara) is one of the world’s most invasive weeds. Aggressive
extermination measures taken by the government over the last 200 years have largely
failed. Lantana continues to spread and occupies 13 million hectares in India.Incorrect
Solution: B
Lantana (Lantana camara) is one of the world’s most invasive weeds. Aggressive
extermination measures taken by the government over the last 200 years have largely
failed. Lantana continues to spread and occupies 13 million hectares in India. -
Question 22 of 25
22. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements
1.As per the Environment Protection Act, 1986 whenever a forest land is to be diverted for non-forestry purposes, the equivalent non forest land has to be identified for compensatory afforestation.
2.Compensatory afforestation Fund Act, 2016 is an act to provide for the establishment
of funds under the public accounts of India.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
As per the Forest Conservation Act, 1980 whenever a forest land is to be diverted for non-forestry purposes, the equivalent non forest land has to be identified for compensatory afforestation.
Incorrect
Solution: B
As per the Forest Conservation Act, 1980 whenever a forest land is to be diverted for non-forestry purposes, the equivalent non forest land has to be identified for compensatory afforestation.
-
Question 23 of 25
23. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements
1.Indian Railway Stations Development Corporation Limited is a special purpose vehicle (SPV) of the Government of India that has been designed to develop new stations and redevelop existing Indian railway stations.
2.IBSAMAR, a joint Multi – National Maritime Exercise between the Indian, Brazilian and South African Navies.
3.Seoul Peace Prize Committee hasdecided to confer 2018 Seoul Peace Prize to Prime Minister of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
All the statements are correct.
Incorrect
Solution: C
All the statements are correct.
-
Question 24 of 25
24. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following company recently has unveiled ‘Project Navlekha’ to make online content relevant for more Indian users especially in local languages?
Correct
Solution: D
Navlekhā, a Google initiative, helps you easily make offline content fully editable and publish online without expert digital knowledge.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Navlekhā, a Google initiative, helps you easily make offline content fully editable and publish online without expert digital knowledge.
-
Question 25 of 25
25. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following criteria is/are considered for recognizing language as a “Classical Language”?
- High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 500 years
2. The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech community
3. A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations of speakers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The criteria evolved by Government to determine declaration of a language as a Classical language is as under
(i) High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years;
(ii) A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations of speakers;
(iii) The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech community;
(iv) The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also be a discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or its
offshoots.Incorrect
Solution: C
The criteria evolved by Government to determine declaration of a language as a Classical language is as under
(i) High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years;
(ii) A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations of speakers;
(iii) The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech community;
(iv) The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also be a discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or its
offshoots. - High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 500 years