Insights Static Quiz -188, 2018
Polity
INSIGHTS IAS QUIZ ON STATIC SYLLABUS - 2018
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
Consider the following statements about Speaker Pro Tem
- The President appoints a member of the Lok Sabha as the Speaker Pro Tem.
- The constitution mentions no oath to the office of Speaker Pro Tem.
- The Speaker Pro Tem has limited powers to that of the Speaker.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?
Correct
Solution: c)
- As provided by the Constitution, the Speaker of the last Lok Sabha vacates his office immediately before the first meeting of the newly-elected Lok Sabha. Therefore, the President appoints a member of the Lok Sabha as the Speaker Pro Tem. Usually, the senior most member is selected for this. (Statement 1)
- The President himself administers oath to the Speaker Pro Tem. (Statement 2)
- The Speaker Pro Tem has all the powers of the Speaker. (Statement 3)
Incorrect
Solution: c)
- As provided by the Constitution, the Speaker of the last Lok Sabha vacates his office immediately before the first meeting of the newly-elected Lok Sabha. Therefore, the President appoints a member of the Lok Sabha as the Speaker Pro Tem. Usually, the senior most member is selected for this. (Statement 1)
- The President himself administers oath to the Speaker Pro Tem. (Statement 2)
- The Speaker Pro Tem has all the powers of the Speaker. (Statement 3)
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Question 2 of 5
2. Question
The Constitution lays down which of the following qualifications for a person to be chosen a member of the state legislature:
- He must be a citizen of India.
- He must be not less than 25 years of age in the case of the legislative council and legislative assembly.
- He must make and subscribe to an oath or affirmation before the person authorised by the Election Commission.
- A person to be elected to the legislative assembly must be an elector for an assembly constituency in the concerned state.
Select the correct code:
Correct
Solution: a)
The Constitution lays down the following qualifications for a person to be chosen a member of the state legislature.
(a) He must be a citizen of India. (Statement 1)
(b) He must make and subscribe to an oath or affirmation before the person authorised by the Election Commission for this purpose. (Statement 3) In his oath or affirmation, he swears
(i) To bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India
(ii) To uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India
(c) He must be not less than 30 years of age in the case of the legislative council and not less than 25 years of age in the case of the legislative assembly. (Statement 2)
(d) He must posses other qualifications prescribed by Parliament.
Accordingly, the Parliament has laid down the following additional qualifications in the Representation of People Act (1951):
(a) A person to be elected to the legislative council must be an elector for an assembly constituency in the concerned state and to be qualified for the governor’s nomination, he must be a resident in the concerned state.
(b) A person to be elected to the legislative assembly must be an elector for an assembly constituency in the concerned state. (Statement 4)
(c) He must be a member of a scheduled caste or scheduled tribe if he wants to contest a seat reserved for them. However, a member of scheduled castes or scheduled tribes can also contest a seat not reserved for them.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
The Constitution lays down the following qualifications for a person to be chosen a member of the state legislature.
(a) He must be a citizen of India. (Statement 1)
(b) He must make and subscribe to an oath or affirmation before the person authorised by the Election Commission for this purpose. (Statement 3) In his oath or affirmation, he swears
(i) To bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India
(ii) To uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India
(c) He must be not less than 30 years of age in the case of the legislative council and not less than 25 years of age in the case of the legislative assembly. (Statement 2)
(d) He must posses other qualifications prescribed by Parliament.
Accordingly, the Parliament has laid down the following additional qualifications in the Representation of People Act (1951):
(a) A person to be elected to the legislative council must be an elector for an assembly constituency in the concerned state and to be qualified for the governor’s nomination, he must be a resident in the concerned state.
(b) A person to be elected to the legislative assembly must be an elector for an assembly constituency in the concerned state. (Statement 4)
(c) He must be a member of a scheduled caste or scheduled tribe if he wants to contest a seat reserved for them. However, a member of scheduled castes or scheduled tribes can also contest a seat not reserved for them.
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Question 3 of 5
3. Question
The committees which examined the Centre-State Relations are:
- Sarkaria Commission
- L M Singhvi Committee
- Rajamannar Committee
- M M Punchhi Commission
Select the correct codes:
Correct
Solution: b)
In 1986, Rajiv Gandhi government appointed a committee to prepare a concept paper on ‘Revitalisation of Panchayati Raj Institutions for Democracy and Development’ under the chairmanship of L M Singhvi.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
In 1986, Rajiv Gandhi government appointed a committee to prepare a concept paper on ‘Revitalisation of Panchayati Raj Institutions for Democracy and Development’ under the chairmanship of L M Singhvi.
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Question 4 of 5
4. Question
The constitution upholds the rights of labour and ensures labour welfare in which of the following ways via Directive principles?
- It makes provision for just and humane conditions for work and maternity relief.
- It exhorts the government to take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries.
Which of the above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: c)
Statement 1: Acts like Maternity Benefit Act or its recent amendment have been enacted in the spirit of the DPSP (Article 42).
Statement 2: These are socialist principles which draw their moorings from the history of economic
thought in India. India upholds an economic system based on the principles of equity, fairness and
justice, and therefore, such rights (provisions) are crucial to ensure labour welfare.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Statement 1: Acts like Maternity Benefit Act or its recent amendment have been enacted in the spirit of the DPSP (Article 42).
Statement 2: These are socialist principles which draw their moorings from the history of economic
thought in India. India upholds an economic system based on the principles of equity, fairness and
justice, and therefore, such rights (provisions) are crucial to ensure labour welfare.
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Question 5 of 5
5. Question
With reference to the Union Government consider the following statements.
1. The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is presented to the parliament
2. No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization of Parliament of India.
3. All the disbursements made from Public Account also need the Authorization from the Parliament of IndiaWhich of the following statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: c)
- The constitution establishes three types of funds – Consolidated Fund of India; Public Account; Contingency Fund.
- Prior authorization is required for withdrawing from Consolidated Fund of India. For Contingency fund of India, withdrawal can be authorized by the Parliament afterwards too. For Public Account, no such authorization is needed.
- Assessing the revenues from different central taxes is the primary function of the Department of Revenue and the expenditure estimates for the current and the next year for various expenditure heads are assessed by the Department of Expenditure. The Department of Expenditure also assesses the resources of the public sector undertakings (PSUs).
- The Budget division is a part of the Department of Economic Affairs.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
- The constitution establishes three types of funds – Consolidated Fund of India; Public Account; Contingency Fund.
- Prior authorization is required for withdrawing from Consolidated Fund of India. For Contingency fund of India, withdrawal can be authorized by the Parliament afterwards too. For Public Account, no such authorization is needed.
- Assessing the revenues from different central taxes is the primary function of the Department of Revenue and the expenditure estimates for the current and the next year for various expenditure heads are assessed by the Department of Expenditure. The Department of Expenditure also assesses the resources of the public sector undertakings (PSUs).
- The Budget division is a part of the Department of Economic Affairs.
