SOLUTIONS
INSIGHTS REVISION TEST for Preliminary Exam 2018: Test – 62(Polity)
1)Rajya Sabha Chairman is the President of the following Parliamentary Forum
- Parliamentary Forum on Youth
- Parliamentary Forum on Population and Public Health
- Parliamentary Forum on Global Warming and Climate Change
- Parliamentary Forum on Water Conservation and Management
Select from the codes below
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 3 and 4 only
Answer – b
- At present, there are six Parliamentary forums
- Parliamentary Forum on Water Conservation and Management (2005)
- Parliamentary Forum on Youth (2006)
- Parliamentary Forum on Children (2006)
- Parliamentary Forum on Population and Public Health (2006)
- Parliamentary Forum on Global Warming and Climate Change (2008)
- Parliamentary Forum on Disaster Management (2011)
- Speaker of Lok Sabha is the President of all the Forums except the Parliamentary Forum on Population and Public Health wherein the Chairman of Rajya Sabha is the President and the Speaker is the Co-President. The Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha, the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, the concerned Ministers and the Chairmen of Departmentally Related Standing Committees are the exofficio Vice Presidents of the respective Forums
2 ) Governor of a state during term of office is completely immune
- For the official acts
- From criminal proceedings
- From civil proceedings
Select the right code
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) All of the above
Answer – a
- He enjoys personal immunity from legal liability for his official acts.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
- During his term of office, he is immune from any criminal proceedings, even in respect of his personal acts.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
- He cannot be arrested or imprisoned. However, after giving two months’ notice, civil proceedings can be instituted against him during his term of office in respect of his personal acts.
Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
3) Appointment of Tribal Welfare minister is essential in which of the following states
- Gujarat
- Madhya Pradesh
- Odisha
- Jharkhand
Select from the codes below
a) 1 and 4 only
b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1 and 3
d) 2 and 4
Answer – b
There should be a Tribal Welfare minister in the states of Chattisgarh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha appointed by Governor of the state.
4) Consider the following statements about election process
- Model Code of Conduct comes into force when the announcement for the election is issued by the Election Commission in Press Conference, even before the notification.
- Returning officer or Assistant Returning Officer must himself/herself administer the oath of every candidate from his/her assigned constituency.
Select from the codes below
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Answer – a
- The Commission normally announces the schedule of elections in a major press conference a few weeks before the formal process is set in motion. The Model Code of Conduct for guidance of candidates and political parties comes immediately into effect after such announcement
Hence statement 1 is correct.
- It is necessary for a candidate to make and subscribe an oath or affirmation before an officer authorised by the Election Commission. For any particular election, the authorised persons are, principally, the Returning Officer and the Assistant Returning Officer for the constituency. In the case of a candidate confined in a prison or under preventive detention, the superintendent of the prison or commandant of the detention camp in which he is so confined or is under such detention is authorised to administer the oath. And in the case of a candidate confined to bed in a hospital or elsewhere owing to illness or any other cause, the medical superintendent in charge of the hospital or the medical practitioner attending on him is similarly authorised. If a candidate is outside India, the Indian Ambassador or High Commissioner or diplomatic consular authorised by him can also administer oath/affirmation.
Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
5) Consider the following about transparency in election process
- EVMs were first used entirely in Loksabha elections in 2004.
- Election Expenditure Observers are appointed by the Election Commission to check undue election expenditure by political parties.
- Media coverage is allowed from counting halls only and not polling stations.
Select from the codes below
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
Answer – a
- Since 1998, the Commission has increasingly used Electronic Voting Machines (EMVs) instead of ballot boxes. In 2003, all state elections and by elections were held using EVMs. Encouraged by this, the Commission took a historic decision to use only EVMs for the Lok Sabha election in 2004. More than 1 million EVMs were used in this election.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Election Commission appoints a large number of Observers to ensure that the campaign is conducted fairly, and that people are free to vote as they choose. Election expenditure Observers keeps a check on the amount that each candidate and party spends on the election. Note that there exists thresholds for candidates to spend in the election, but not for the political parties, however election expenditure observers “observes”, if not regulate, both party and candidates.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
- In order to bring as much transparency as possible to the electoral process, the media are encouraged and provided with facilities to cover the election, although subject to maintaining the secrecy of the vote. Media persons are given special passes to enter polling stations to cover the poll process and the counting halls during the actual counting of votes.
Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
6) Consider the following
- The offices of Attorney General and Solicitor General are created by the Constitution of India.
- Attorney General can be appointed as a member of some Parliamentary Committees.
- Attorney General can carry own his private legal practice in civil or criminal cases without any barrier.
Select from the codes below
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above
Answer – b
- Only the office of the AG is created by the Constitution. Article 76 does not mention about the solicitor general and additional solicitor general, while it creates office of AG.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- In the performance of his official duties, the Attorney General has the right of audience in all courts in the territory of India. Further, he has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which he may be named a member, but without a right to vote. He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a member of Parliament
Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Attorney General is not a full-time counsel for the Government. He does not fall in the category of government servants. Further, he is not debarred from private legal practice. However, he should not defend accused persons in criminal prosecutions without the permission of the Government of India.
Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
7) For the enforcement of Fundamental Rights through laws, the laws can be made by
a) State legislature
b) Parliament
c) Both a and b
d) Supreme Court
Answer – b
Most of the Fundamental Rights are directly enforceable (self-executory) while a few of them can be enforced on the basis of a law made for giving effect to them. Such a law can be made only by the Parliament and not by state legislatures so that uniformity throughout the country is maintained (Article 35).
8) Some Fundamental Rights are available against the state. Which of the following can be termed as State as per Article 12 for enforcement of Fundamental Rights
- LIC
- District Court
- A private company undertaking road project under EPC moel
- Gram Panchayat
Which of the above is/are correct
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) All of them
Answer – c
- The term ‘State’ has been used in different provisions concerning the fundamental rights. Hence, Article 12 has defined the term for the purposes of Part III. According to it, the State includes the following:
(a) Government and Parliament of India, that is, executive and legislative organs of the Union government.
(b) Government and legislature of states, that is, executive and legislative organs of state government.
(c) All local authorities, that is, municipalities, panchayats, district boards, improvement trusts, etc.
(d) All other authorities, that is, statutory or non-statutory authorities like LIC, ONGC, SAIL, etc. - Thus, State has been defined in a wider sense so as to include all its agencies. It is the actions of these agencies that can be challenged in the courts as violating the Fundamental Rights.
- According to the Supreme Court, even a private body or an agency working as an instrument of the State falls within the meaning of the ‘State’ under Article 12
9) Which of the following statements are true for Charter Act of 1853
- It separated the legislative and executive functions of the Company.
- The local representation was ensured in legislative council of the Governor-General.
Select from the codes below
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Answer – c
- It separated, for the first time, the legislative and executive functions of the Governor General’s council. It provided for addition of six new members called legislative councillors to the council. In other words, it established a separate Governor-General’s legislative council which came to be known as the Indian (Central) Legislative Council.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
- It introduced, for the first time, local representation in the Indian (Central) Legislative Council. Of the six new legislative members of the governor-general’s council, four members were appointed by the local (provincial) governments of Madras, Bombay, Bengal and Agra.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
10) Which of the following were the members of Drafting Committee of the Constitution
- BR Ambedkar
- KM Munshi
- Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar
- Syed Mohammad Saadullah
Select from the codes below
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) All of them
Answer – d
- Among all the committees of the Constituent Assembly, the most important committee was the Drafting Committee set up on August 29, 1947. It was this committee that was entrusted with the task of preparing a draft of the new Constitution. It consisted of seven members. They were:
Dr B R Ambedkar (Chairman)
2. N Gopalaswamy Ayyangar
3. Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar
4. Dr K M Munshi
5. Syed Mohammad Saadullah
6. N Madhava Rau (He replaced B L Mitter who resigned due to ill-health)
7. T T Krishnamachari (He replaced D P Khaitan who died in 1948)
11) Consider the following about the major Committees and their respective chairpersons
- Union Powers Committee – Jawaharlal Nehru
- Provincial Constitution Committee – Sarojini Naidu
- Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas – Sardar Patel
- States Committee (Committee for Negotiating with States) – Jawaharlal Nehru
Which of the above is/are correct
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) All of them
Answer – c
- Union Powers Committee – Jawaharlal Nehru
2. Union Constitution Committee – Jawaharlal Nehru
3. Provincial Constitution Committee – Sardar Patel
4. Drafting Committee – Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
5. Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas – Sardar Patel. This committee had the following sub-committes:
(a) Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee – J.B. Kripalani
(b) Minorities Sub-Committee – H.C. Mukherjee
(c) North-East Frontier Tribal Areas and Assam Excluded & Partially Excluded Areas SubCommittee – Gopinath Bardoloi
(d) Excluded and Partially Excluded Areas (Other than those in Assam) Sub-Committee – A.V. Thakkar
6. Rules of Procedure Committee – Dr. Rajendra Prasad
7. States Committee (Committee for Negotiating with States) – Jawaharlal Nehru
8. Steering Committee – Dr. Rajendra Prasad
12) Consider the following statemets
- Rajendra Prasad was the Presiding Officer in the Constituent Assembly.
- Rajendra Prasad was elected President of India just after independence.
Select from the codes below
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Answer – a
Whenever the Assembly met as the Constituent body it was chaired by Dr. Rajendra Prasad (Hence statement 1 is correct) and when it met as the legislative body, it was chaired by G V Mavlankar. These two functions continued till November 26, 1949, when the task of making the Constitution was over. On December 11, 1946, Dr Rajendra Prasad and H C Mukherjee were elected as the President and Vice-President of the Assembly respectively
Constituent Assembly elected Dr Rajendra Prasad as the first President of India on January 24, 1950. It’s not just after the independence.
Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
13) North-Eastern Council is a
- Statutory body
- Has Sikkim within its framework
Select from the codes below
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Answer – c
- In addition to the Zonal Councils, a North-Eastern Council was created by a separate Act of Parliament—the North-Eastern Council Act of 1971.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Its members include Assam, Manipur, Mizoram, Arunchal Pradesh, Nagaland, Meghalaya, Tripura and Sikkim. In 2002, Sikkim was added as the eighth member of the North-Eastern Council.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
14) Vansadhara Water Dispute Council was established in 2010. Which of the following states were parts to it?
- Odhisa
- Andhra Pardesh
- Chhattisgarh
- West Bengal
Select from the codes below
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 and 4 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1 and 4 only
Answer – a
15) Which of the following can be given independent charge of a ministry
- Minister of State
- Deputy Minister
- Parliamentary Secretary
Select from the codes below
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) None of the above
Answer – a
- The council of ministers consists of three categories of ministers, namely, cabinet ministers, ministers of state, and deputy ministers.
- The ministers of state can either be given independent charge of ministries/departments or can be attached to cabinet ministers. In case of attachment, they may either be given the charge of departments of the ministries headed by the cabinet ministers or allotted specific items of work related to the ministries headed by cabinet ministers. In both the cases, they work under the supervision and guidance as well as under the overall charge and responsibility of the cabinet ministers. In case of independent charge, they perform the same functions and exercise the same powers in relation to their ministries/departments as cabinet ministers do. However, they are not members of the cabinet and do not attend the cabinet meetings unless specially invited when something related to their ministries/departments are considered by the cabinet
- Next in rank are the deputy ministers. They are not given independent charge of ministries/departments. They are attached to the cabinet ministers or ministers of state and assist them in their administrative, political, and parliamentary duties. They are not members of the cabinet and do not attend cabinet meetings
- There is one more category of ministers, called parliamentary secretaries. They are the members of the last category of the council of ministers (which is also known as the ‘ministry’). They have no department under their control. They are attached to the senior ministers and assist them in the discharge of their parliamentary duties. However, since 1967, no parliamentary secretaries have been appointed except during the first phase of Rajiv Gandhi Government.
16) Consider the following
- National Commission for SC and STs became a multi-member Constitutional body in 1990.
- National Commission for STs protects the practice of shifting cultivation by tribals.
Select from the following codes
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Answer – a
- Originally, Article 338 of the Constitution provided for the appointment of a Special Officer for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs).
- In 1978, the Government (through a Resolution) set up a non-statutory multi-member Commission for SCs and STs; the Office of Commissioner for SCs and STs also continued to exist.
- Later, the 65th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1990 provided for the establishment of a high level multi-member National Commission for SCs and STs in the place of a single Special Officer for SCs and STs.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
- In 2005, the President specified other functions of the Commission in relation to the protection, welfare and development and advancement of the STs, which included “measures to be taken to reduce and ultimately eliminate the practice of shifting cultivation by tribals that lead to their continuous disempowerment and degradation of land and the environment”.
Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
17) Consider the following statements
- DGP of BSF can restrict Fundamental Rights of BSF personnel.
- Fundamental Rights remains restricted in an area where martial law is in force.
Select the right code
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Answer – b
- The application of fundamental rights to the members of armed forces, para-military forces, police forces, intelligence agencies and analogous services can be restricted or abrogated by the Parliament (Article 33).
Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- Their application can be restricted while martial law is in force in any area. Martial law means ‘military rule’ imposed under abnormal circumstances to restore order (Article 34). It is different from the imposition of national emergency.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
18) If the following restricts the movement of the women in a village,
- Gram Panchayat
- Khap Panchayat
In which of the above, a writ petition can be filed in the Supreme Court directly?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Answer – a
- The term ‘State’ has been used in different provisions concerning the fundamental rights. Hence,
Article 12 has defined the term for the purposes of Part III. According to it, the State includes the following – All local authorities, that is, municipalities, panchayats, district boards, improvement trusts, etc. - Khap Panchayat is only a traditional institution with no legal and constitutional mandate.
Hence statement 1 is appropriate option.
- A remedy under Article 32 is in itself a Fundamental Right and hence, the Supreme Court may not refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction. The restriction on movement of women can be challenged under Article 14, 19 and 21.
19) Consider the following about the Ninth Schedule
- The acts under the Schedule has decreased since its introduction in 1951.
- No Act under the Schedule can be challenged in the Courts.
Select from the codes below
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Answer – d
- Article 31B saves the acts and regulations included in the Ninth Schedule from being challenged and invalidated on the ground of contravention of any of the fundamental rights. Originally (in 1951), the Ninth Schedule contained only 13 acts and regulations but at present (in 2013) their number is 282.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- In January 2007, the Supreme Court ruled that there could not be any blanket immunity from judicial review of laws included in the Ninth Schedule. The court held that judicial review is a ‘basic feature’ of the constitution and it could not be taken away by putting a law under the Ninth Schedule. It said that the laws placed under the Ninth Schedule after April 24, 1973, are open to challenge in court if they violated fundamentals rights guaranteed under Articles 14, 15, 19 and 21 or the ‘basic structure’ of the constitution.
Hence statement 2 is incorrect
20) A Constitutional Right other than Fundamental Right
- Can be regulated without the constitutional amendment by the legislature
- Is protected against executive action
- Allows moving to High Court through a writ petition
Which of the above is/are correct
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) All of the above
Answer – d
- A constitutional right, say right to property, can be regulated ie, curtailed, abridged or modified without constitutional amendment by an ordinary law of the Parliament.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
- It protects violation against executive action but not against legislative action. Hence statement 2 is correct
- In case of violation, the aggrieved person cannot directly move the Supreme Court under Article 32 (right to constitutional remedies including writs) for its enforcement. He can move the High Court under Article 226.
Hence statement 3 is correct
- Avi covered 150km distance in 10 hours. The first part of his journey he covered by car, then he hired a rickshaw. The speed of car and rickshaw is 20 km/h and 12 km/h respectively. The ratio of distances covered by car and the rickshaw respectively are:
a) 2:3
b) 4:5
c) 1:1
d) None of the above
Solution: c
Justification:
Let the time period for which Avi has travelled by car and rickshaw be ‘x’ hours and ‘y’ hours respectively.
Thus, x + y = 10 …..Eq1
The distance covered by car = x × 20 = 20x km.
The distance covered by rickshaw = y × 12 = 12y km.
Therefore, 20x + 12y = 150 ……Eq2
By multiplying Eq1 with 20, we get
20x + 20y = 200 …….Eq3
Subtracting Eq2 from Eq3, we get
20x + 20y – 20x – 12y = 200 – 150
8y = 50
y = 50/8 = 25/4
By substituting y in Eq1, we get
x + 25/4 = 10
x = 15/4
The ratio of distances covered by car and rickshaw = 20x : 12y = 20×(15/4) : 12×(25/4)
= 75 : 75
= 1:1
- 12 women can do a piece of work in 20 days. If 4 women deny to work, then how many more days are required to finish the work?
a) 6
b) 10
c) 12
d) 15
Solution: b
Justification:
If 12 women can do a piece of work in 20 days, then the total work is of 12 × 20 = 240 women days.
If 4 women deny to work, 8 women will work.
Hence, number of days required for finishing the work = 240/8 = 30.
Number of more days required = 30 – 20 = 10.
- A shopkeeper uses a weight of 450g instead of 500g and sells the articles at the cost price. What is the profit percentage?
a) 10%
b) 5%
c) 11%
d) None of the above
Solution: c
Justification:
Let the cost price of 1 kg of articles be Rs.100
The cost price of 450g of articles = Rs.45
The cost price of 500g of articles = Rs.50
The profit earned by selling 450g of articles = Rs.5
Hence, profit percentage = (5/45) × 100 = 11.11%
- X can beat Y by 200m in a race of 2000m. Y can beat Z by 100m in a race of 2500m. By how many meters can X beat Z in a race of 1000m?
a) 680m
b) 136m
c) 300m
d) 320m
Solution: b
Justification:
Case 1: When X completes 2000m, Y completes 1800m.
Case 2: When Y completes 2500m, Z completes 2400m.
To draw relation between X and Z, we have to make common Y in both the cases.
To have common Y, we have to take LCM of 1800 and 2500.
LCM of 1800 and 2500 is 4500.
When Y is 4500, X = (2000/1800) × 4500 = 5000.
When Y is 4500, Z = (2400/2500) × 4500 = 4320.
Therefore, X : Z = 5000 : 4320
When X completes 1000m, Z completes (4320/5000) × 1000 = 864m
Thus, X beats Z by (1000-864) = 136m.
- Sita has 5 friends. In how many ways can she invite one or more of them to a dinner?
a) 31
b) 13
c) 55
d) 25
Solution: a
