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SOLUTIONS – INSIGHTS REVISION TEST for Preliminary Exam 2018: Test – 54(Geography)


INSIGHTS REVISION TEST for Preliminary Exam 2018: Test – 54(Geography)


  1. The collision between a continental lithospheric plate and an oceanic lithospheric plate leads to formation of


a) A Volcanic Island arc

b) A chain of coastal volcanic mountains

c) A mid-oceanic ridge

d) A transform fault

Answer: (b)


The collision of a continental plate with an oceanic plate results in the oceanic plate being subducted beneath the continental plate. The surface features that are formed include a deep offshore trench and a chain of coastal volcanic mountains.

Volcanic island arc is formed when one oceanic plate subducts below the other oceanic plate. Along diverging plate boundaries, mid-oceanic ridges are formed.

  1. Which amongst the following countries is situated on ‘Pacific Ring of Fire’


a) Brazil

b) Australia

c) Chile

d) India

Answer: (c)


The Ring of Fire is a string of volcanoes and sites of seismic activity, or earthquakes, around the edges of the Pacific Ocean. Roughly 90% of all earthquakes occur along the Ring of Fire, and the ring is dotted with 75% of all active volcanoes on Earth. 

 The Ring of Fire isn’t quite a circular ring. It is shaped more like a 40,000-kilometer (25,000-mile) horseshoe. A string of 452 volcanoes stretches from the southern tip of South America, up along the coast of North America, across the Bering Strait, down through Japan, and into New Zealand. Several active and dormant volcanoes in Antarctica, however, “close” the ring.

  1. Air moving from the poles toward the equator turns West. The primary cause of this global deflection is


a) The geoid shape of the earth

b) The tilt of Earth’s axis relative to its Orbital plane

c) The rotation of Earth on its axis

d) The shape and size of land masses

Answer: (c)


Once air has been set in motion by the pressure gradient force, it undergoes an apparent deflection from its path, as seen by an observer on the earth. This apparent deflection is called the “Coriolis force” and is a result of the earth’s rotation. As air moves from high to low pressure in the northern hemisphere, it is deflected to the right by the Coriolis force. In the southern hemisphere, air moving from high to low pressure is deflected to the left by the Coriolis force.

The amount of deflection the air makes is directly related to both the speed at which the air is moving and its latitude. Therefore, slowly blowing winds will be deflected only a small amount, while stronger winds will be deflected more. Likewise, winds blowing closer to the poles will be deflected more than winds at the same speed closer to the equator. The Coriolis force is zero right at the equator.

  1. Most of the weather phenomena takes place in troposphere only because


a) Temperature remains almost constant in troposphere

b) It contains electrically charged particles

c) It absorbs harmful ultraviolet radiation from the sun

d) It contains almost all the water vapour and most dust particles

Answer: (d)


The troposphere is denser than the layers of the atmosphere above it (because of the weight compressing it), and it contains up to 75% of the mass of the atmosphere. It is primarily composed of nitrogen (78%) and oxygen (21%) with only small concentrations of other trace gases. Nearly all atmospheric water vapour or moisture is found in the troposphere.

The troposphere is the layer where most of the world’s weather takes place. Since temperature decreases with altitude in the troposphere, warm air near the surface of the Earth can readily rise, being less dense than the colder air above it. In fact air molecules can travel to the top of the troposphere and back down again in a just a few days. Such vertical movement or convection of air generates clouds and ultimately rain from the moisture within the air, and gives rise to much of the weather which we experience. The troposphere is capped by the tropopause, a region of stable temperature. Air temperature then begins to rise in the stratosphere. Such a temperature increase prevents much air convection beyond the tropopause, and consequently most weather phenomena, including towering cumulonimbus thunderclouds, are confined to the troposphere.

  1. Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched


a) Rio de la Plata :    Brazil

b) Gulf of California :    Mexico

c) Gulf of Aqaba :    Jordan

d) Gulf of Aden         :    Yemen

Answer: (a)


Río de la Plata, a tapering intrusion of the Atlantic Ocean on the east coast of South America between Uruguay to the north and Argentina to the south. While some geographers regard it as a gulf or as a marginal sea of the Atlantic, and others consider it to be a river, it is usually held to be the estuary of the Paraná and Uruguay rivers (as well as of the Paraguay River, which drains into the Paraná).

The Gulf of California is the body of water located between the Mexican mainland and the Baja California Peninsula. The Gulf of California is also known as the Sea of Cortez, and is considered to be one of the world’s most diverse seas. There are portions of the Gulf of California that have been declared as UNESCO World Heritage Sites.

Created by seismic activity along the Afro-Syrian Rift, the Gulf of Aqaba is a deep narrow body of water, bordered by Israel, Jordan, Egypt and Saudi Arabia and is one of the hinges connecting the Asian and African continents. 

Gulf of Aden, deepwater basin that forms a natural sea link between the Red Sea and the Arabian Sea. Named for the seaport of Aden, in southern Yemen, the gulf is situated between the coasts of Arabia and the Horn of Africa. 


  1. Which of the following pair of warm ocean currents move away from Equator


a) Alaska and Humboldt

b) Antilles and Brazilian

c) East Australian and Oyashio

d) Agulhas and Labrador

Answer: (b)


The Antilles Current is a highly variable surface ocean current of warm water that flows north-easterly past the island chain that separates the Caribbean Sea and the Atlantic Ocean. The current results from the flow of the Atlantic North Equatorial Current. The Brazil Current is a warm water current that flows south along the Brazilian south coast to the mouth of the Río de la Plata. This current is caused by diversion of a portion of the Atlantic South Equatorial Current from where that current meets the South American continent.

  1. Which of the following is NOT correct regarding shifting cultivation form of agriculture?

(a) It occurs mainly in tropical environments.

(b) Farmers clear land using a slash and burn technique

(c)  Cultivation of cash crops meant for exports

(d) It was practiced sustainably by indigenous peoples but now is associated with deforestation in Brazil

Answer: (c)


Swidden agriculture, also known as shifting cultivation, refers to a technique of rotational farming in which land is cleared for cultivation (normally by fire) and then left to regenerate after a few years. Shifting cultivation is called by different names in different parts of the world. It is generally known as ‘slash and burn’ and ‘bush fal­low’ agriculture. It is variously termed as Ladang in Indonesia, Caingin in Philippines, Milpa in Central America and Mexico, Ray in Vietnam, Conuco in Venezuela, Roca in Brazil, Masole in the Congo and Central Africa. Most families grow for subsistence purposes, just to eat and live, so one swidden might have a large variety of crops. In other cases, the crops grown by each village vary by local customs and taste. The predominant crops include upland rice in Southeast Asia, maize (corn) and manioc (cassava) in South America, and sorghum in Africa. Yams, sugarcane, plantain, and vegetables are also grown in some regions. 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a major oil-producing zone in the world

                (a) Gulf of Mexico

                (b) Persian Gulf

                (c) North Sea

                (d) Great Lake region of North America

                Answer: (d)


The Great Lake region is rich in iron-ore deposit. Lake Superior has high deposits of iron-ore. The Great Lake region is highly industrialised especially famous for iron and steel industry. Rest of the above regions are rich petroleum deposits.     


  1. A decline in a country’s crude birth rate would result in an increase in the country’s

                (a) total fertility rate

                (b) doubling time

                (c) crude death rate

                (d) None of the above

                Answer: (b)


With the decrease in the birth rate, the doubling time decreases. Developed countries have greater doubling time compared to developing countries. In general a country having lower birth rate have lower mortality rate. Decrease in birth rate leads to decrease in total fertility rate.

  1. Which of the following three rivers of Peninsular India have the Amarkantak region as their source

                (a) Chambal, Betwa, Sind

                (b) Narmada and Subarnarekha

                (c) Narmada and Sone

                (d) Narmada , North Koel and Baitarani

                Answer: (c)


Narmada, the largest west flowing river of the Peninsula, rises near Amarkantak range of mountains in Madhya Pradesh. It is the fifth largest river in the country and the largest one in Gujarat. It traverses Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra and Gujarat and meets the Gulf of Cambay. It is one of only three major rivers in peninsular India that run from east to west (longest west flowing river), along with the Tapti River and the Mahi River. It is one of the rivers in India that flows in a rift valley, flowing west between the Satpura and Vindhya ranges.

Sone River of central India is the Second largest of the Ganges’ southern tributaries after Yamuna River. It originates near Amarkantak in Madhya Pradesh, just east of the headwater of the Narmada River, and flows north-northwest through Madhya Pradesh state before turning sharply eastward where it encounters the southwest-northeast-Kaimur Range. The Sone parallels the Kaimur hills, flowing east-northeast through Uttar Pradesh, Jharkhand and Bihar states to join the Ganges just west of Patna.

  1. When a person traverses from Mangalore ( West ) to Hyderabad ( East ), which one of the following sequences ( from West to East ) of forest types does he observe

                (a) Tropical Evergreen – Tropical wet deciduous – Tropical semi-evergreen – Tropical Dry

                (b) Tropical Wet deciduous – Tropical Evergreen – Tropical semi-evergreen – Tropical Dry

                (c) Tropical semi-evergreen – Tropical Evergreen – Tropical Dry – Tropical Wet Deciduous

                (d) Tropical Evergreen – Tropical dry – Tropical Wet deciduous – Tropical semi-evergreen

                Answer: (b)


                Tropical Wet deciduous – Western slopes of Western Ghats and coastal region

                Tropical Evergreen    – Western Ghats

                Tropical semi-evergreen –  Drier margins of Western Ghats – Eastern slope

                Tropical Dry –  Rain shadow region

  1. Which one of the following pairs of cities have the largest annual average rainfall difference as compared to the other three pairs

                (a) Mumbai and Pune

                (b) Kolkata and Bhubaneshwar

                (c) Chennai and Madurai

                (d) Jabalapur and Nagpur

                Answer: (a)


Mumbai is on windward side of Western Ghats and Pune on the rainshadow areas of Western Ghats. Hence the annual average rainfall difference is highest between these two cities.The average difference is lower in rest of the cases.

13.Which of the following pairs are correctly matched

  1. Winter rain in North West India :  Western disturbances
  2. Summer rain in Bengal basin        :  Nor’westers
  3. Winter rain in Tamil Nadu :  North East monsoon

                Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1 and 3 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 2 only

d) All the above

Answer: (d)

  1. Among the following states, in which one is the percentage of forest area to total geographical area the highest

                (a) Arunachal Pradesh

                (b) Madhya Pradesh

                (c) Jammu Kashmir

                (d) Himachal Pradesh

                Answer: (a)


                Arunachal – 81.25%

                Madhya Pradesh – 25.11%

                Jammu Kashmir – 10.46%

                Himachal Pradesh – 27.12%

  1. Which one of the following correctly states the location of ‘Cold desert’ of India

                (a) To the west of Pir Panjal range

                (b) To the south of Siwalik Range

                (c) To the north-east of Karakoram range

                (d) To the west of Aravali range

                Answer: (c)

  1. The Palghat Gap serves inland communications from

                (a) Pune to Mumbai

                (b) Bangalore and Mangalore

                (c) Madurai and Trivandrum

                (d) Coimbatore and Palakkad

                Answer: (d)

17.Which of the east flowing rivers falling into Bay of Bengal originate in Western Ghats

  1. Zuari
  2. Vaigai
  3. Godavari
  4. Penneru

                Which of the following is/are correct

a) 1,2 and 3 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 2,3 and 4

d) 3 only

Answer: (b)

18.Consider the following statements

  1. Bhopal is located on Malwa plateau.
  2. Chilika lake is located along boundary of Odisha and Andhra Pradesh.

                Which of the following is correct

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) None of the above

Answer: (a)

19.Which of the conservation sites are located in Aravallis

  1. Sariska Tiger reserve
  2. Kanha National Park

                Which of the following is correct

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) None of the above

Answer: (a)

20.Consider the following

  1. Srirangapatnam
  2. Srirangam
  3. Majuli

                Which of following is/are RIVERINE islands in India

a) 3 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) All the above

Answer: (d)


  1. A page contains 50 lines. A chapter contains 150 pages. A book contains 4 chapters. 25 such books from a bound. If there are totally 30 lakhs lines in an x numbers of bounds then the value of x is:

a) 3

b) 4

c) 5

d) 6

Solution: b


Total number of lines = x × 25 × 4 × 150 × 5

But also, 30 lakhs = x × 25 × 4 × 150 × 5

x = (30 lakhs) / 25 × 4 × 150 × 5

x = 4.

  1. A fruit seller gives away to each of his sons 1/12, 5/18, 7/30 and 7/48 of the apples in a basket and has only just enough apples to be able to do so without dividing an apple. The minimum number of apples he had?

a) 250

b) 720

c) 750

d) 240

Solution: b


The total number of apples has to be perfectly divided by 12, 18, 30 and 48.

We have to find the LCM of 12, 18, 30 and 48.

LCM = 720.

Hence, the fruit seller had 720 apples.

  1. Half-life of a substance is defined as the time period in which a substance becomes just half of it. If it is known that the half-life of a substance ‘X’ is 512 years, then after 2048 years, 128 g of ‘X’ becomes:

a) 8g

b) 4g

c) 16g

d) 32g


Solution: a




After 512 years, the substance will become half i.e. 128g/2 = 64g


After 512 years more i.e. after 1024 years, the substance will become half of 64g i.e. 64g/2 = 32g


After 512 years more i.e. after 1536 years, the substance will become half of 32g i.e. 32g/2 = 16g


After 512 years more i.e. after 2048 years, the substance will become half of 16g i.e. 16g/2 = 8g.


  1. A student started writing down the counting numbers as 1, 2, 3, 4….. and then he added all those numbers and got the result 100. But when the result was checked it was found that the student had missed a number. What is the missing number?

a) 15

b) 14

c) 10

d) 5


Solution: d




The sum of first n numbers = n (n+1)/2


100 = n (n+1)/2

To get the sum 100 the nearest natural number ‘n’ = 14.

For n = 14,


n (n+1)/2 = 105.


When the correct sum is 105 and the sum with mistake is 100, the missed out number = 5.


Hence, the sum of numbers from 1 to 14 while missing ‘5’ is 100.


  1. There are five locks exactly with one key for each lock. All the keys are mixed. The maximum number of attempts needed to get the correct combination is:

a) 15

b) 20

c) 25

d) 10

Solution: d


Let’s take a random key out of 5 keys.

The maximum number of unsuccessful attempts with the first key can be done is 4. After 4 unsuccessful attempts, the fifth lock is the right lock for that key.

Similarly, 3 attempts with second key.

Hence, maximum number of attempts = 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 10.