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SOLUTIONS – INSIGHTS REVISION TEST for Preliminary Exam 2018: Test – 34(Geography)


INSIGHTS REVISION TEST for Preliminary Exam 2018: Test – 34(Geography)


  1. The farthest point from center of Earth is

a) Mount Kenya.

b) Mount Everest.

c) Mount Chimborazo.

d) Mauna Kea


Solution:  c

Explanation: Highest above Earth’s Center: The Earth does not have the shape of a perfect sphere. Instead, its diameter is greatest near the equator. In the diagram above, the gray dashed line is a perfect circle, and the solid blue line represents the shape of the earth (exaggerated a bit to make its departure from spherical obvious). Chimborazo is located near the equator where Earth’s diameter is greatest. This makes the summit of Chimborazo the highest point above the center of the Earth.

 Mauna Kea: Tallest Mountain

Mauna Kea has an altitude of 4,205 meters (13,796 feet) – much lower than Mount Everest. However, Mauna Kea is an island, and if the distance from the bottom of the nearby Pacific Ocean floor to the peak of the island is measured, then Mauna Kea is “taller” than Mount Everest.

Mauna Kea is over 10,000 meters tall compared to 8,850 meters for Mount Everest – making it the “world’s tallest mountain.”



  1. Consider the following statements


  1. The sun rays never fall vertically over the state of Manipur.
  2. Eris earlier called Ceres 2003 UB313 is a dwarf planet located between Neptune and Uranus.

                Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) None of the above


Solution: a


  1. Manipur – The state lies at a latitude of 23°83’N – 25°68’N and a longitude of 93°03’E – 94°78’E. Since it lies beyond Tropic of cancer line , the sun rays do not fall vertically on Manipur. (Hence statement 1 is correct).
  2. Eris is the largest known dwarf planet in the solar system. It is a trans-Neptunian object (TNO), orbiting the Sun in a region of space known as the scattered disc, just beyond the Kuiper belt. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect). Eris is the most distant object ever seen in orbit around the Sun, even more distant than Sedna, the Kuiper Belt object discovered in 2003. It is almost 10 billion miles from the Sun and more than 3 times more distant than Pluto and takes more than twice as long to orbit the Sun as Pluto. It has an orbital period of 556.7 years.


  1. Consider the following statements


  1. When crossing the International Date Line (IDL) into the Eastern Hemisphere, a person loses a day.
  2. The duration of continuous day or night decreases north ward as one moves from Artic Circle to North Pole.

                Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) None of the above


Answer: a

  1. The earth rotates from West to East, therefore, time to the East is ahead of time to the West. When crossing the International Date Line from the Western to the Eastern Hemisphere we are going ‘forward’ in terms of time and ‘backwards’ in time when crossing from the Eastern to the Western Hemisphere. (Hence statement 1 is correct).

So, travel east across the International Date Line results in a day, or 24 hours, being subtracted. Travel west across the International Date Line results in a day being added.

  1. Day length varies with the time of year and the latitude at which you are situated. Because of the earth’s tilt, areas above the Arctic Circle receive 24 hours of sunlight each summer, but 24 hours of darkness each winter. The duration increases as we move from Arctic circle to North pole. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect).

  1. An important cause of the slowing down of the Earth’s rotation is the

a) Pull of the moon on the Earth’s Magnetic field

b) Tides caused by the gravity of the moon

c) Gravitational pull of sun

d) None of the above

Solution: b


  1. The side of the Earth facing the Moon is about 6400 kilometers closer to the Moon than the center of the Earth is, and the Moon’s gravity pulls on the near side of the Earth more strongly than on the Earth’s center. This produces a tidal bulge on the side of the Earth facing the Moon. These tidal bulges are always along the Earth-Moon line and the Earth rotates beneath the tidal bulge. When the part of the Earth where you are located sweeps under the bulges, you experience a high tide; when it passes under one of the depressions, you experience a low tide. An ideal coast should experience the rise and fall of the tides twice a day. In reality, the tidal cycle also depends on the latitude of the site, the shape of the shore, winds, etc. As the Earth rotates beneath the tidal bulges, it attempts to drag the bulges along with it. A large amount of friction is produced which slows down the Earth’s spin. The day has been getting longer and longer by about 0.0016 seconds each century.

(Hence answer is option B).


  1. Rotational speed of earth is not affected by the magnetic lines
  2. Because of the distance the impact of gravitational pull of sun on rotational speed variation is negligible.

5) Identify the countries which border more than one ocean.

  1. East Timor
  2. Colombia
  3. Thailand

            Which of the following is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 Only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 Only

d) All of the above


Answer: d

East Timor – Pacific and Indian Ocean

Colombia     – Atlantic and Pacific

Thailand    – Indian and Pacific oceans

  1. Consider the following statements


  1. Fold mountains are usually composed of sedimentary rocks
  2. Block mountains are formed by the process of denudation

Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) None of the above

Answer: a


Fold Mountains are formed when sedimentary rock strata in geosynclines are subjected to compressive forces. Fold Mountains form when two tectonic plates move towards each other at a convergent plate boundary. Fold Mountains form from sedimentary rocks that accumulate along the margins of continents. (Hence statement 1 is correct).

Block Mountains are formed by faulting. Block mountains also known as Horst. It is formed when the tensional forces causes the plates on the earth crusts to move apart. This movement causes the rocks to be stretched. Temperatures are low and the rocks are brittle. Instead of folding, they break into large blocks. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect).


Due to the compressional forces, the middle section of the rocks are uplifted, resulting it to be higher than the surrounding land.

An example of the block mountain is the Vosges in France and the Black Forest in Germany which are separated by the Rhine Valley. 

  1. Lakshadweep Island are the product of

a) Volcanic Activity

b) Wave action

c) Sea-floor expansion

d) Reef formation


Answer : d

Explanation : Lakshadweep islands consist of a group of tiny coral islands, located in the Arabian Sea, about 400 km from the main land (southern tip of the Indian Peninsula). The Union Territory of Lakshadweep consists of 10 inhabited islands, 17 uninhabited islands, attached islets, 4 newly formed islets and 5 submerged reefs. These islands are scattered in the Arabian Sea between North Latitudes 8o 00’ and 12o 13’N and east longitude 71o 00’ and 74o 00’E . These islands are typically a chain of low islands surrounding a shallow lagoon, consisting largely of recent sediments on top of older coral limestone.

  1. Which of the following statements is NOT correct

a) Oceanic crust are much younger compared to Continental crust.

b) The oceanic crust is made of basalt and gabbro rocks

c) The Earth’s mantle is composed of ultramafic rocks

d) The largest portion of Earth’s volume is occupied by core.


Answer : d

 Explanation :

Earth’s crust only accounts for less than 1% of the Earth’s interior.The Earth’s crust is the outer shell of the Earth. This is the part that has cooled down enough to solidify into rock. The crust extends down 30 km to 80 km underneath the continents, and only 5 km beneath the oceans. As you travel down through the crust, temperatures increase. The crust is broken up into several tectonic plates which “float” on top of the Earth’s mantle. In some regions, plates are sliding underneath one another, recycling rocks into the Earth. The crust beneath the middle of the oceans is spreading apart, and new material is welling up.

Beneath the crust is the largest part of the Earth’s interior: the mantle, which makes up about 84% of the Earth’s volume. This region extends down to a depth of 2,890 km. As you travel down through the mantle, temperatures increase immensely;

At the very center of the Earth lies the core. This is a solid sphere of metal 2,440 km across surrounded by a layer of liquid metal. Scientists think that mostly made of iron (80%), with the rest composed of other heavy metals, like nickel, gold, platinum and even uranium.

  • The oceanic crust are destroyed along the submergent boundaries ( trenches ) and new oceanic floor is created along the divergent plate boundary
  • Mantle is composed of ultramafic rocks
  • Oceanic crust is composed of basalt


  1. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of landforms developed under fluvial cycle of erosion in terms of where they are formed in the river course ?

a) Gorge-Piedmont plain-Flood plain-Delta

b) Gorge-Flood plain-Piedmont plain-Delta

c) Piedmont Plain-Gorge-Flood Plain-Delta

d) Gorge-Piedmont Plain-Delta-Flood Plain

Answer : a

 Explanation :

  • Piedmont plain are formed along the foothills region.
  • Gorge are formed at the upper reaches of mountains
  • Flood plains are formed at lower reaches where the elevation is much lower
  • Delta plains are formed along coastline


  1. The factors that affect wind direction and speed are.

a) Pressure gradient force, coriolis force, moisture content.

b) Coriolis force, pressure gradient force, friction.

c) Friction, moisture content, pressure gradient force.

d) Moisture content, centripetal acceleration, coriolis force.

Answer: b

Explanation:  Moisture does not affect the wind speed and direction

Factors Affecting Wind Motion:

1. Pressure Gradient Force:

This is the force generated due to the differences in horizontal pressure, and it operates from the high pressure area to a low pressure area. Since a closely spaced gradient implies a steep pressure change, it also indicates a strong wind speed. The wind direction follows the direction of change of pressure, i.e. perpendicular to the isobars.

2. Coriolis Force:

Due to the earth’s rotation, winds do not cross the isobars at right angles as the pressure gradient force directs, but get deflected from their original path. This deviation is the result of the earth’s rotation and is called the Coriolis Effect or Coriolis force. Due to this effect, winds in the northern hemisphere get deflected to the right of their path and those in the southern hemisphere to their left, following Farrel’s Law. The Coriolis force changes wind direction but not its speed. This deflection force does not seem to exist until the air is set in motion and increases with wind velocity, air mass and an increase in latitude.

3. Centripetal Acceleration:

Due to inward acceleration of air towards the centre of rotation on the rotating earth, it is possible for the air to maintain a curved path (parallel to the isobars), about a local axis of high or low pressure. It is known as centripetal acceleration.

4. Frictional Force:

The irregularities of the earth’s surface offer resistance to the wind motion in the form of friction. This force determines the angle at which air will flow across the isobars, as well as the speed at which it will move. It may also alter wind direction. Over the relatively smooth ocean surface, the friction is minimum, so the air moves at low angles to the isobars and at a greater speed. Over uneven terrain, however, due to high friction, the wind direction makes high angles with, isobars and the speed gets retarded.

11) Consider the following statements regarding ocean currents.

  1. At higher latitudes, usually cold currents move along the western coasts of the continents.
  2. Alaska current is a warm current moving along coast of USA and Canada.

Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) None of the above

Answer : b

Explanation: In general the cold currents move eastern coast of continents at higher latitudes. Example Labrador current , Oyashio current. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect).

  • Alaska is a warm current. (Hence statement 2 is correct).

  1. Which of the following is NOT a feature of tropical rainforest.

a) More than 200cm of annual rainfall.

b) Nutrient-rich and pH-neutral soil

c) Low annual range of temperature.

d) Dense canopy with little light reaching the forest floor.

Answer : b

Explanation : Most tropical rainforest soils relatively poor in nutrients. Millions of years of weathering and torrential rains have washed most of the nutrients out of the soil. Constant warmth and moisture promote rapid decay of organic matter. When a tree dies in the rainforest, living organisms quickly absorb the nutrients before they have a chance to be washed away. When tropical forests are cut and burned, heavy rains can quickly wash the released nutrients away, leaving the soil even more impoverished. Because of heavy leaching of bases the soil is acidic in nature

  1. Between which one of the following pairs of Ports does Panama Canal shorten the distance to the maximum.

a) Liverpool and shanghai

b) New York and wellington

c) Liverpool and Sydney

d) New York and San Francisco.

Answer : d

Explanation: Because of the circumnavigation of South America the distance is shortened to maximum between New York and San Francisco. In rest of the cases the proportion of distance shortened is lesser.


14) Consider the following statements regarding HOT deserts.

  1. High annual range of temperature.
  2. Nomadism
  3. Located on eastern margins of continent.

 Which of the following are CORRECT?

a) 2 Only

b) 1 & 2 Only

c) 2 & 3 Only

d) 1 & 3 only


Answer: a

Explanation: The annual range of temperature is lesser and the temperatures are higher throughout the year.Hot deserts have greater diurnal range of temperature. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect).

Hot deserts are located on the Western margins of continents. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect).

 Nomadism is important characteristics of deserts where people or tribe move place to place in search of pasture and food. (Hence statement 2 is correct).

  1. Which of the following are correctly matched.


     Forest                                                  Tree

  1. Tundra Vegetation                 —      Lichens
  2. Tropical Deciduous Forest      —      Mahogany
  3. Coniferous Forests                —      Pine


a) 3 Only

b) 1 Only

c) 1 & 3 Only

d) 1 & 2 Only


Answer: c


  • Mahogany is found in the Tropical Evergreen forest.
  • Tundra Vegetation is found in polar areas of Europe, Asia and North America. Only mosses , lichens and very small shrubs are found in these regions
  • Coniferous forests are mostly found in regions of the Earth that experience long winters and short summers. Coniferous forests, therefore, are found mainly in the northern hemisphere, although some are found in the southern hemisphere.Coniferous forests (fir, pine, spruce) make up one-third of the world’s forests and are found in northern parts of North America, Europe and Asia where temperatures tend to be lower and winter tends to last longer.

  1. Which of the following rivers originate along the slopes of Eastern Ghats


  1. Vamshadhara
  2. Subranarekha
  3. Indravati
  4. Vaigai

Which of the following is CORRECT.

a) 1 and 4

b) 1 and 3

c) 1,2 and 3

d) 2,3 and 4


Answer: c

Explanation :

  • Vaigai originates from western ghats and falls in Palk starit.
  • Subarnarekha rivers originates in chotanagpur plateau near Ranchi and flows through the states of Jharkand, West Bengal and Odisha.
  • Vamshadhara and Indravati rivers originate along slopes of Eastern Ghats.


  1. Which of the following rivers form natural boundary between various states in India.


  1. Ravi
  2. Chambal
  3. Yamuna
  4. Seonath


a) 1,2,3

b) 1,2 & 4

c) 2,3 Only

d) 2,3 &4


Answer : a


  • Ravi river forms boundary between Jammu Kashmir and Punjab.
  • Chambal river forms boundary between Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh.
  • Yamuna river forms boundary between Haryana and Uttarpradesh.
  • Seonath or shivanath is tributary of Mahanadi river entirely located in Chattisgarh


  1. Which of the following Ramsar Sites are located in Western Himalayas.


  1. Nalasarovar
  2. Kanjli
  3. Rudrasagar Lake


a) 2 & 3 only

b) 3 Only

c) 1 & 3 Only

d) None of the above

Answer : d

  1. Nalasarovar is in Gujarat
  2. Kanjli is in Punjab plains
  3. Rudrasagar lake is in Tripura


  1. Identify the brackish/salt water lakes India.


  1. Pangong Tso
  2. Sambhar Lake
  3. Loktak Lake


a) 1 & 3

b) 2 Only

c) 1 & 2

d) 2 & 3


Answer : c

Expalnation :

Pangong Tso formed from Tethys geosyncline is a salt water lake.

Sambhar is salt water lake in Rajasthan where evaporation exceeds the precipitation.

Loktak lake is fresh water lake in Manipur


  1. Doyang and Dikhu are the prominent river systems of which of the following state.


a) Arunachal Pradesh

b) Mizoram

c) Meghalaya

d) Nagaland

Answer : d

Explanation: The major rivers of Nagaland are Doyang, Dikhu, Dhansiri, Tizu, Tsurong, Nanung, Tsurang or Disai, Tsumok, Menung, Dzu, Langlong, Zunki, Likimro, Lanye, Dzuza and Manglu. All these rivers are dendritic in nature.

 Of the rivers, Dhansiri, Doyang and Dikhu flow westward into the Brahmaputra.

The Tizu River, on the other hand, flows towards east and joins the Chindwin River in Burma.

21) The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is a regulation that intends to strengthen and harmonise data protection law frameworks across the

a) European Union

b) G20 group of nations

c) OECD countries

d) NATO countries


Solution: a.

GDPR seeks to create a harmonised data protection law framework across the EU and aims to give citizens back the control of their personal data, whilst imposing strict rules on those hosting and ‘processing’ this data, anywhere in the world. The Regulation also introduces rules relating to the free movement of personal data within and outside the EU.


GDPR would apply to all firms, regardless of their location, that process personal data of people living in the EU. Once in force, the GDPR would require companies to notify a data breach within 72 hours of the event.


What is the GDPR:;;


22) Consider the following statements with reference to inflation trends in the Indian economy over the past few years:

1.The average Consumer Price Index has steadily declined since 2014-15

2.The average Wholesale Price Index declined in 2015-16 but has been rising since

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2


Solution: c)

23) The Technical Education Quality Improvement Programme (TEQIP) is run by

a) Ministry of Labour and Employment

b) Ministry of Human Resource Development

c) Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises

d) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship


Solution: b.

The Ministry of Human Resource Development has recruited more than 1200 highly qualified and motivated graduates from IITs and NITs among others to teach in Engineering Colleges in the most backward areas for the next 3 years.


Under this project (presently TEQIP-III, assisted by World Bank)), all Government engineering colleges are selected for direct intervention, and all private engineering colleges are selected for indirect intervention. The measures are institution-based (ex: governance reforms) and student-based (ex: improving the quality of teaching).


24) Consider the following statements:

  1. It is a low cost, solar energy driven cleanup technique.
  2. It is most useful at sites with shallow, low levels of contamination.
  3. It is Useful for treating a wide variety of environmental contaminants.
  4. It is effective with, or in some cases, in place of mechanical cleanup methods

The above statements refer to:

a) Phytoremediation

b) Bioventing

c) Bioleaching

d) Bioremediation


Solution: a)


Phytoremediation (‘phyto’ means plant) is a generic term for the group of technologies that use plants for remediating soils, sludges, sediments and water contaminated with organic and inorganic contaminants. Phytoremediation can be defined as “the efficient use of plants to remove, detoxify or immobilise environmental contaminants in a growth matrix (soil, water or sediments) through the natural biological, chemical or physical activities and processes of the plants”. Plants are unique organisms equipped with remarkable metabolic and absorption capabilities, as well as transport systems that can take up nutrients or contaminants selectively from the growth matrix, soil or water. Phytoremediation involves growing plants in a contaminated matrix, for a required growth period, to remove contaminants from the matrix, or facilitate immobilisation (binding/containment) or degradation (detoxification) of the pollutants. The plants can be subsequently harvested, processed and disposed.

25) Consider the following statements:

1.The Parliament can amend a repealed legislation retrospectively

2.The finance bill, the passing of which by the Parliament is a part of enactment of the budget, is a money bill

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2


Solution: c.

Presently, consider statement 1 to be correct. Keep track of the news for any updates on this issue.


The Union government has, in the Budget, proposed to amend the repealed Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA), 1976, retrospectively, a move that will benefit the ruling BJP and the Congress held guilty by the Delhi High Court for receiving foreign funds from two subsidiaries of Vedanta, a U.K.-based company.  (The Representation of the People Act and the FCRA bar political parties from receiving foreign funds.)


In 2016, the government amended the FCRA through the Finance Bill route, allowing foreign-origin companies to finance non-governmental organisations and clearing the way for donations to political parties by changing the definition of “foreign companies”. The amendment, though done retrospectively, only made valid the foreign donations received after 2010, the year when the 1976 Act was amended. The retrospective amendment did not apply to donations prior to 2010.


Justification for Statement 2 (Stages in Enactment of Budget -> Chapter ‘Parliament’, Indian Polity by M Laxmikanth): The Finance Bill (not financial bill) is introduced to give effect to the financial proposals of the  Government  of  India  for  the  following  year.  It  is  subjected  to  all  the  conditions  applicable  to  a Money Bill.;