INSIGHTS REVISION TEST for Preliminary Exam 2018:
(Indian Polity )
Test –22
Detailed Revision Timetable
INSIGHTS IAS REVISION PLAN FOR PRELIMS 2018 - DAILY REVISION TESTS
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Welcome to Insights IAS Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam – 2018.
If you are wondering why these questions are posted, please refer to the detailed Timetable provided HERE.
These questions serve TWO purposes: One to test your revision skills; Second is to give you a glimpse into topics that you might have missed during revision.
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Question 1 of 25
1. Question
2 pointsWhich Constitutional Amendment Act facilitated the appointment of the same person as a governor for two or more states?
Correct
Answer: B
Why?- UPSC-2001 Match the following -69th,75th,80th,83rd ; UPSC 2002-44th and 93rd ;UPSC 2003-1st,7th and 31st; UPSC 2005-44th and 98th; 2006-104th amendment bill, 86th and 42nd ; 2007-91st etc. + UPSC 2013- -CORRECT/INCORRECT -In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States at the same time
Explanation:
Usually, there is a governor for each state, but the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 facilitated the appointment of the same person as a governor for two or more states.
7th Constitutional Amendment also provided for the appointment of additional and acting judges of the high court; It has provided for the establishment of a common high court for two or more states; It has extended the jurisdiction of high courts to union territories.
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 30
Incorrect
Answer: B
Why?- UPSC-2001 Match the following -69th,75th,80th,83rd ; UPSC 2002-44th and 93rd ;UPSC 2003-1st,7th and 31st; UPSC 2005-44th and 98th; 2006-104th amendment bill, 86th and 42nd ; 2007-91st etc. + UPSC 2013- -CORRECT/INCORRECT -In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States at the same time
Explanation:
Usually, there is a governor for each state, but the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 facilitated the appointment of the same person as a governor for two or more states.
7th Constitutional Amendment also provided for the appointment of additional and acting judges of the high court; It has provided for the establishment of a common high court for two or more states; It has extended the jurisdiction of high courts to union territories.
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 30
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Question 2 of 25
2. Question
2 pointsConsider the following Statements:
1.Indian Constitution did not stipulate that the Governor should be an outsider. It is only a Convention.
- It is mandatory as per the Constitution that the President is required to consult the chief minister.
- During his term of office, Governor is immune from any criminal proceedings, even in respect of his personal acts
Which of the above is/are CORRECT?
Correct
Answer:A
Why?[UPSC 2013-CORRECT/INCORRECT- No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his/her post]
Explanation:
Statement 1 :
The Constitution lays down only two qualifications for the appointment of
a person as a governor. These are:
- He should be a citizen of India.
- He should have completed the age of 35 years.
Additionally, two conventions have also developed in this regard over the years. First, he should be an outsider, that is, he should not belong to the state where he is appointed, so that he is free from the local politics. HENCE STATEMENT 1 is CORRECT
Statement 2:
Second, while appointing the governor, the president is required to consult the chief minister of the state concerned, so that the smooth functioning of the constitutional machinery in the state is ensured. However, both the conventions have been violated in some of the cases.
Hence Statement 2 is INCORRECT
Statement 3:
Like the President, the governor is also entitled to a number of privileges and immunities. He enjoys personal immunity from legal liability for his official acts. During his term of office, he is immune from any criminal proceedings, even in respect of his personal acts. He cannot be arrested or imprisoned. However, after giving two months’ notice, civil proceedings can be instituted against him during his term of office in respect of his personal acts.
Hence Statement 3 is CORRECT
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 30
Incorrect
Answer:A
Why?[UPSC 2013-CORRECT/INCORRECT- No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his/her post]
Explanation:
Statement 1 :
The Constitution lays down only two qualifications for the appointment of
a person as a governor. These are:
- He should be a citizen of India.
- He should have completed the age of 35 years.
Additionally, two conventions have also developed in this regard over the years. First, he should be an outsider, that is, he should not belong to the state where he is appointed, so that he is free from the local politics. HENCE STATEMENT 1 is CORRECT
Statement 2:
Second, while appointing the governor, the president is required to consult the chief minister of the state concerned, so that the smooth functioning of the constitutional machinery in the state is ensured. However, both the conventions have been violated in some of the cases.
Hence Statement 2 is INCORRECT
Statement 3:
Like the President, the governor is also entitled to a number of privileges and immunities. He enjoys personal immunity from legal liability for his official acts. During his term of office, he is immune from any criminal proceedings, even in respect of his personal acts. He cannot be arrested or imprisoned. However, after giving two months’ notice, civil proceedings can be instituted against him during his term of office in respect of his personal acts.
Hence Statement 3 is CORRECT
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 30
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Question 3 of 25
3. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following Statements is/are INCORRECT?
1.Governor can nominate one member to the state legislature assembly from the Anglo-Indian Community.
2.Governor decides on the question of disqualification of members of the state legislature in consultation with the Election Commission.
Correct
Answer: D
Why? [UPSC 2015-Governor powers with respect to Legislative Council]
Statement 1:
The governor can nominate one member from the Anglo-Indian community, if the community is not adequately represented in the assembly. Originally, this provision was to operate for ten years (ie, upto 1960). But this duration has been extended continuously since then by 10 years each time. Now, under the 95th Amendment Act of 2009, this is to last until 2020.
Hence Statement 1 is CORRECT
Statement 2:
On the question whether a member has become subject to any of the disqualification criteria, the governor’s decision is final. However, he should obtain the opinion of the Election Commission and act accordingly.
Hence Statement 2 is CORRECT
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 30
Incorrect
Answer: D
Why? [UPSC 2015-Governor powers with respect to Legislative Council]
Statement 1:
The governor can nominate one member from the Anglo-Indian community, if the community is not adequately represented in the assembly. Originally, this provision was to operate for ten years (ie, upto 1960). But this duration has been extended continuously since then by 10 years each time. Now, under the 95th Amendment Act of 2009, this is to last until 2020.
Hence Statement 1 is CORRECT
Statement 2:
On the question whether a member has become subject to any of the disqualification criteria, the governor’s decision is final. However, he should obtain the opinion of the Election Commission and act accordingly.
Hence Statement 2 is CORRECT
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 30
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Question 4 of 25
4. Question
2 pointsAssertion (A): Ordinance making power of Governor is a discretionary Power
Reason (R): After the 42nd Constitutional Amendment (1976), ministerial advice has
been made binding on the President, but no such provision has been made with respect to the governor.
Correct
Answer:D
Why? [UPSC 2014-Discretionary powers of Governor]
Explanation:
Assertion:
Governor’s ordinance-making power is not a discretionary power. This means that he can promulgate or withdraw an ordinance only on the advice of the council of ministers headed by the chief minister. Hence it is FALSE
Reason: Factual. It is TRUE.
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 30
Incorrect
Answer:D
Why? [UPSC 2014-Discretionary powers of Governor]
Explanation:
Assertion:
Governor’s ordinance-making power is not a discretionary power. This means that he can promulgate or withdraw an ordinance only on the advice of the council of ministers headed by the chief minister. Hence it is FALSE
Reason: Factual. It is TRUE.
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 30
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Question 5 of 25
5. Question
2 pointsCurrently, Which of the following State Legislatures do not have bicameral system?
1.Tamil Nadu
2.Maharastra
3.Andhra Pradesh
4.Jammu and Kashmir
5.Gujarat
Correct
Answer: B
Why? [UPSC 1995- Which one of the following States of India does not have a Legislative Council so far even though the Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act 1956 provides for it?]
Explanation:
There is no uniformity in the organisation of state legislatures. Most of the states have an unicameral system, while others have a bicameral system. At present (2016), only seven states have two Houses (bicameral). These are Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Jammu and Kashmir
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 33
Incorrect
Answer: B
Why? [UPSC 1995- Which one of the following States of India does not have a Legislative Council so far even though the Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act 1956 provides for it?]
Explanation:
There is no uniformity in the organisation of state legislatures. Most of the states have an unicameral system, while others have a bicameral system. At present (2016), only seven states have two Houses (bicameral). These are Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Jammu and Kashmir
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 33
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Question 6 of 25
6. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements:
1.The Parliament has fixed the maximum and minimum strength of a Legislative Council through Representation of People Act, 1951.
2.Some members of the legislative assemblies in Manipur and Mizoram are also indirectly elected.
3.There is no mechanism of joint sitting of both the Houses at State level to resolve the disagreement between the two Houses over a bill.
Which of the above is/are CORRECT?
Correct
Answer: C
Why? [Improvisation from UPSC 2015 question related to Legislative Council and Governor powers ]
Statement 1:
The maximum strength of the council is fixed at one-third of the total strength of the assembly and the minimum strength is fixed at 40. It means that the size of the council depends on the size of the assembly of the concerned state. This is done to
ensure the predominance of the directly elected House (assembly) in the legislative affairs of the state. Though the Constitution has fixed the maximum and the minimum limits, the actual strength of a Council is fixed by Parliament.
Hence Statement 1 is INCORRECT
Statement 2:
The legislative assembly consists of representatives directly elected by the people on the basis of universal adult franchise. Its maximum strength is fixed at 500 and minimum strength at 60. It means that its strength varies from 60 to 500 depending on the population size of the state. However, in case of Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim and Goa, the minimum number is fixed at 30 and in case of Mizoram and Nagaland, it is 40 and 46
respectively. Further, some members of the legislative assemblies in Sikkim and Nagaland [NOT IN MANIPUR AND MIZORAM] are also elected indirectly.
HENCE STATEMENT 2 is INCORRECT
Statement 3:
The ultimate power of passing an ordinary bill is vested in the assembly. At the most, the council can detain or delay the bill for a period of four months—three months in the first instance and one month in the second instance. The Constitution does not provide for the mechanism of joint sitting of both the Houses to resolve the disagreement between the two Houses over a bill. On the other hand, there is a provision for joint sitting of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha to resolve a disagreement between the two over an ordinary bill. Moreover, when a bill, which has originated in the council and was sent to the assembly, is rejected by the assembly, the bill ends and becomes dead.
Hence Statement 3 is CORRECT
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 33
Incorrect
Answer: C
Why? [Improvisation from UPSC 2015 question related to Legislative Council and Governor powers ]
Statement 1:
The maximum strength of the council is fixed at one-third of the total strength of the assembly and the minimum strength is fixed at 40. It means that the size of the council depends on the size of the assembly of the concerned state. This is done to
ensure the predominance of the directly elected House (assembly) in the legislative affairs of the state. Though the Constitution has fixed the maximum and the minimum limits, the actual strength of a Council is fixed by Parliament.
Hence Statement 1 is INCORRECT
Statement 2:
The legislative assembly consists of representatives directly elected by the people on the basis of universal adult franchise. Its maximum strength is fixed at 500 and minimum strength at 60. It means that its strength varies from 60 to 500 depending on the population size of the state. However, in case of Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim and Goa, the minimum number is fixed at 30 and in case of Mizoram and Nagaland, it is 40 and 46
respectively. Further, some members of the legislative assemblies in Sikkim and Nagaland [NOT IN MANIPUR AND MIZORAM] are also elected indirectly.
HENCE STATEMENT 2 is INCORRECT
Statement 3:
The ultimate power of passing an ordinary bill is vested in the assembly. At the most, the council can detain or delay the bill for a period of four months—three months in the first instance and one month in the second instance. The Constitution does not provide for the mechanism of joint sitting of both the Houses to resolve the disagreement between the two Houses over a bill. On the other hand, there is a provision for joint sitting of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha to resolve a disagreement between the two over an ordinary bill. Moreover, when a bill, which has originated in the council and was sent to the assembly, is rejected by the assembly, the bill ends and becomes dead.
Hence Statement 3 is CORRECT
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 33
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Question 7 of 25
7. Question
2 pointsAssertion (A): The privileges of State Legislature do not extend to the Governor
Reason (R): Governor is not an integral part of the State Legislature
Correct
Answer:C
The Constitution has also extended the privileges of the state legislature to those persons who are entitled to speak and take part in the proceedings of a House of the state legislature or any of its committees. These include advocate-general of the state and state ministers. It must be clarified here that the privileges of the state legislature do not extend to the governor who is also an integral part of the state legislature.
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 32
Incorrect
Answer:C
The Constitution has also extended the privileges of the state legislature to those persons who are entitled to speak and take part in the proceedings of a House of the state legislature or any of its committees. These include advocate-general of the state and state ministers. It must be clarified here that the privileges of the state legislature do not extend to the governor who is also an integral part of the state legislature.
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 32
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Question 8 of 25
8. Question
2 pointsCurrently, which of the following States/UTs have the lowest number of seats in the Legislative Assembly?
Correct
Answer:B
Explanation:
Goa- 40;
Puducherry- 30;
Sikkim- 32 ;
Mizoram-40
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 33
Incorrect
Answer:B
Explanation:
Goa- 40;
Puducherry- 30;
Sikkim- 32 ;
Mizoram-40
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 33
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Question 9 of 25
9. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following Statements is/are CORRECT?
1.A distinguished jurist cannot be appointed as a judge of a high court.
2.A duly qualified person can be appointed as an additional judge by the parliament for a temporary period not exceeding two years.
Correct
Answer: A
WHY?- [UPSC 2013- CORRECT/INCORRECT- The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State just as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President ]
Explanation:
STATEMENT 1:
A person to be appointed as a judge of a high court, should have the following qualifications:
- He should be a citizen of India.
- (a) He should have held a judicial office in the territory of India for ten
years; or
(b) He should have been an advocate of a high court (or high courts in
succession) for ten years.
From the above, it is clear that the Constitution has not prescribed a minimum age for appointment as a judge of a high court. Moreover, unlike in the case of the Supreme Court, the Constitution makes no provision for appointment of a distinguished jurist as a judge of a high court.
Hence Statement 1 is CORRECT
STATEMENT 2:
The President[NOT PARLIAMENT] can appoint duly qualified persons as additional judges of a high court for a temporary period not exceeding two years.
Hence Statement 2 is INCORRECT
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 34
Incorrect
Answer: A
WHY?- [UPSC 2013- CORRECT/INCORRECT- The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State just as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President ]
Explanation:
STATEMENT 1:
A person to be appointed as a judge of a high court, should have the following qualifications:
- He should be a citizen of India.
- (a) He should have held a judicial office in the territory of India for ten
years; or
(b) He should have been an advocate of a high court (or high courts in
succession) for ten years.
From the above, it is clear that the Constitution has not prescribed a minimum age for appointment as a judge of a high court. Moreover, unlike in the case of the Supreme Court, the Constitution makes no provision for appointment of a distinguished jurist as a judge of a high court.
Hence Statement 1 is CORRECT
STATEMENT 2:
The President[NOT PARLIAMENT] can appoint duly qualified persons as additional judges of a high court for a temporary period not exceeding two years.
Hence Statement 2 is INCORRECT
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 34
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Question 10 of 25
10. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements:
1.The appellate jurisdiction of a high court is wider than its original jurisdiction.
2.The writ jurisdiction of the high court is wider than that of the Supreme Court
3.The expression ‘Contempt of Court’ has no concrete definition either in the constitution or in a legislation.
Which of the above is/are CORRECT?
Correct
Answer: D
Why? [UPSC 2009- CORRECT/INCORRECT-As provided in Civil Procedure Code, High Courts have original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction at the State level]
Statement 1: A high court is primarily a court of appeal. It hears appeals against the judgements of subordinate courts functioning in its territorial jurisdiction. It has appellate jurisdiction in both civil and criminal matters. Hence, the appellate jurisdiction of a high court is wider than its original jurisdiction. [Original Jurisdiction doesn’t deal with Criminal matters]
Hence Statement 1 is CORRECT
Statement 2: The writ jurisdiction of the high court is wider than that of the Supreme Court. This is because, the Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of fundamental rights and not for any other purpose, that is, it does not extend to a case where the breach of an ordinary legal right is alleged.
Hence Statement 2 is CORRECT.
Statement 3:
The expression ‘contempt of court’ has not been defined by the Constitution. However, the expression has been defined by the Contempt of Court Act of 1971. Under this, contempt of court may be civil or criminal.
Hence Statement 3 is INCORRECT.
Additional relevant information:
Civil contempt means wilful disobedience to any judgement, order, writ or other process of a court or wilful breach of an undertaking given to a court. Criminal contempt means the publication of any matter or doing an act which —(i) scandalises or lowers the authority of a court; or (ii) prejudices or interferes with the due course of a judicial proceeding; or (iii) interferes or obstructs the administration of justice in any other manner.
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 34
Incorrect
Answer: D
Why? [UPSC 2009- CORRECT/INCORRECT-As provided in Civil Procedure Code, High Courts have original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction at the State level]
Statement 1: A high court is primarily a court of appeal. It hears appeals against the judgements of subordinate courts functioning in its territorial jurisdiction. It has appellate jurisdiction in both civil and criminal matters. Hence, the appellate jurisdiction of a high court is wider than its original jurisdiction. [Original Jurisdiction doesn’t deal with Criminal matters]
Hence Statement 1 is CORRECT
Statement 2: The writ jurisdiction of the high court is wider than that of the Supreme Court. This is because, the Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of fundamental rights and not for any other purpose, that is, it does not extend to a case where the breach of an ordinary legal right is alleged.
Hence Statement 2 is CORRECT.
Statement 3:
The expression ‘contempt of court’ has not been defined by the Constitution. However, the expression has been defined by the Contempt of Court Act of 1971. Under this, contempt of court may be civil or criminal.
Hence Statement 3 is INCORRECT.
Additional relevant information:
Civil contempt means wilful disobedience to any judgement, order, writ or other process of a court or wilful breach of an undertaking given to a court. Criminal contempt means the publication of any matter or doing an act which —(i) scandalises or lowers the authority of a court; or (ii) prejudices or interferes with the due course of a judicial proceeding; or (iii) interferes or obstructs the administration of justice in any other manner.
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 34
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Question 11 of 25
11. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following are Correctly Matched [In terms of Article related to Special Provisions and Corresponding State]
1.Article 371 B — Assam
2.Article 371 H — Arunachal Pradesh
3.Article 371 F — Sikkim
Correct
Answer: D
Why? [UPSC 2005- CORRECT/INCORRECT- Articles 371–A to 371–I were inserted in the Constitution of India to meet regional demands of Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra
Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Goa]
Explanation: Factual.
Other Special Provisions related Articles – 371A-NAGALAND; 371C-MANIPUR; 371D,E-ANDHRA PRADESH[COMBINED], 371F-SIKKIM, 371G-MIZORAM,371I-GOA
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 37
Incorrect
Answer: D
Why? [UPSC 2005- CORRECT/INCORRECT- Articles 371–A to 371–I were inserted in the Constitution of India to meet regional demands of Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra
Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Goa]
Explanation: Factual.
Other Special Provisions related Articles – 371A-NAGALAND; 371C-MANIPUR; 371D,E-ANDHRA PRADESH[COMBINED], 371F-SIKKIM, 371G-MIZORAM,371I-GOA
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 37
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Question 12 of 25
12. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following are Correctly Matched [in terms of High Court and its Seat] ?
1.Rajasthan – Jaipur
2.Orissa – Bhuvaneshwar
3.Kerala-Ernakulam
4.Andhra Pradesh-Amaravati
5.Chattisgarh-Bilaspur
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Rajasthan – Jodhpur; Orissa-Cuttack; Andhra Pradesh-Hyderabad;
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 34
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Rajasthan – Jodhpur; Orissa-Cuttack; Andhra Pradesh-Hyderabad;
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 34
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Question 13 of 25
13. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements with respect to Subordinate Courts [District and Lower Levels]:
1.The Chief Judicial Magistrate exercises unlimited pecuniary jurisdiction over civil suits.
2.The subordinate judge decides criminal cases which are punishable with imprisonment for a term up to seven years.
3.Panchayat Courts try both petty civil and criminal cases.
4.At the lowest level, on the civil side, is the Court of Munsiff
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: C
Why? [UPSC 2004-Gave four statements regarding “The highest criminal court of the district is the Court of District and Sessions Judge” and asked which of them are CORRECT]
Statement 1 : Below the District and Sessions Court stands the Court of Subordinate Judge on the civil side and the Court of Chief Judicial Magistrate on the criminal side. The subordinate judge [Not the Chief Judicial Magistrate ]exercises unlimited pecuniary jurisdiction over civil suits.
Hence Statement 1 is INCORRECT
Statement 2: The Chief Judicial Magistrate [Not the subordinate judge] decides criminal cases which are punishable with imprisonment for a term up to seven years.
Hence Statement 2 is INCORRECT
Statement 3: In some states, Panchayat Courts try petty civil and criminal cases. They are variously known as Nyaya Panchayat, Gram Kutchery, Adalati Panchayat, Panchayat Adalat and so on.
Hence Statement 3 is CORRECT
Statement 4: Below the District and Sessions Court stands the Court of Subordinate Judge on the civil side and the Court of Chief Judicial Magistrate on the criminal side. The subordinate judge exercises unlimited pecuniary jurisdiction over civil suits . The chief judicial magistrate decides criminal cases which are punishable with imprisonment for a term up to seven years. At the lowest level, on the civil side, is the Court of Munsiff and on the criminal side, is the Court of Judicial Magistrate.
Hence Statement 4 is CORRECT
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 35
Incorrect
Answer: C
Why? [UPSC 2004-Gave four statements regarding “The highest criminal court of the district is the Court of District and Sessions Judge” and asked which of them are CORRECT]
Statement 1 : Below the District and Sessions Court stands the Court of Subordinate Judge on the civil side and the Court of Chief Judicial Magistrate on the criminal side. The subordinate judge [Not the Chief Judicial Magistrate ]exercises unlimited pecuniary jurisdiction over civil suits.
Hence Statement 1 is INCORRECT
Statement 2: The Chief Judicial Magistrate [Not the subordinate judge] decides criminal cases which are punishable with imprisonment for a term up to seven years.
Hence Statement 2 is INCORRECT
Statement 3: In some states, Panchayat Courts try petty civil and criminal cases. They are variously known as Nyaya Panchayat, Gram Kutchery, Adalati Panchayat, Panchayat Adalat and so on.
Hence Statement 3 is CORRECT
Statement 4: Below the District and Sessions Court stands the Court of Subordinate Judge on the civil side and the Court of Chief Judicial Magistrate on the criminal side. The subordinate judge exercises unlimited pecuniary jurisdiction over civil suits . The chief judicial magistrate decides criminal cases which are punishable with imprisonment for a term up to seven years. At the lowest level, on the civil side, is the Court of Munsiff and on the criminal side, is the Court of Judicial Magistrate.
Hence Statement 4 is CORRECT
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 35
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Question 14 of 25
14. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following Statements is/are CORRECT?
1.All questions of disqualification from Panchayat membership shall be referred to the State Election Commission, as per the 73rd Constitution Amendment Act.
2.The Conditions of Service and tenure of the State Election Commissioner are determined by the State Legislature
Correct
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1:
As per the 73rd Constitution Amendment Act, a person shall be disqualified for being chosen as or for being a member of panchayat if he is so disqualified, (a) under any law for the time being in force for the purpose of elections to the legislature of the state concerned, or (b) under any law made by the state legislature. However, no person shall be disqualified on the ground that he is less than 25 years of age if he has attained the age of 21 years. Further, all questions of disqualifications shall be referred to such authority as the state legislature determines.
Hence Statement 1 is INCORRECT.
Statement 2:
The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of all elections to the panchayats shall be vested in the state election commission. It consists of a state election commissioner to be appointed by the governor. His conditions of service and tenure of office shall also be determined by the governor. He shall not be removed from the office except in the manner and on the grounds prescribed for the removal of a judge of the state high court.
Hence Statement 2 is INCORRECT.
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 38
Incorrect
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1:
As per the 73rd Constitution Amendment Act, a person shall be disqualified for being chosen as or for being a member of panchayat if he is so disqualified, (a) under any law for the time being in force for the purpose of elections to the legislature of the state concerned, or (b) under any law made by the state legislature. However, no person shall be disqualified on the ground that he is less than 25 years of age if he has attained the age of 21 years. Further, all questions of disqualifications shall be referred to such authority as the state legislature determines.
Hence Statement 1 is INCORRECT.
Statement 2:
The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of all elections to the panchayats shall be vested in the state election commission. It consists of a state election commissioner to be appointed by the governor. His conditions of service and tenure of office shall also be determined by the governor. He shall not be removed from the office except in the manner and on the grounds prescribed for the removal of a judge of the state high court.
Hence Statement 2 is INCORRECT.
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 38
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Question 15 of 25
15. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following is/are CORRECT?
1.Notified Area Committee is partly elected and partly Nominated Body
2.Notified Area Committee is a Statutory Body
3.74th Constitutional Amendment Act lays down that four-fifths of the members of a Metropolitan planning committee should be elected by the elected members of the Municipalities and chairpersons of the Panchayats in the metropolitan area from amongst themselves.
Correct
Answer: D
Why? [UPSC 2005-CORRECT/INCORRECT -Part IX–A of the Constitution of India contains provisions for municipalities and the Article 243–Q envisages two types of municipalities – a Municipal Council and a Municipal Corporation for every State.]
Statement 1 and 2:
Unlike the municipality, Notified Area Committee is an entirely nominated body, that is, all the members of a notified area committee including the chairman are nominated by the state government. Thus, it is neither an elected body nor a statutory body.
Hence Statement 1 and Statement 2 are INCORRECT
Statement 3: The act lays down that two-thirds of the members[ Not four-fifths] of a metropolitan planning committee should be elected by the elected members of the
municipalities and chairpersons of the panchayats in the metropolitan area from amongst themselves.
Hence Statement 3 is INCORRECT
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 39
Incorrect
Answer: D
Why? [UPSC 2005-CORRECT/INCORRECT -Part IX–A of the Constitution of India contains provisions for municipalities and the Article 243–Q envisages two types of municipalities – a Municipal Council and a Municipal Corporation for every State.]
Statement 1 and 2:
Unlike the municipality, Notified Area Committee is an entirely nominated body, that is, all the members of a notified area committee including the chairman are nominated by the state government. Thus, it is neither an elected body nor a statutory body.
Hence Statement 1 and Statement 2 are INCORRECT
Statement 3: The act lays down that two-thirds of the members[ Not four-fifths] of a metropolitan planning committee should be elected by the elected members of the
municipalities and chairpersons of the panchayats in the metropolitan area from amongst themselves.
Hence Statement 3 is INCORRECT
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 39
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Question 16 of 25
16. Question
2 pointsConsider the following Statements:
1.Municipal Corporations in Union territories are established by the acts of Parliament of India.
2.Special purpose agencies such as Urban Development authorities are subordinate agencies of the local Municipal bodies.
Correct
Answer: A
Why?-
Explanation:
Statement 1: Municipal corporations are created for the administration of big cities like Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Hyderabad, Bangalore and others. They are established in the states by the acts of the concerned state legislatures, and in the union territories by the acts of the Parliament of India.
Hence Statement 1 is CORRECT
Statement 2: Special Purpose agencies such as Urban Development authorities functional local bodies are established as statutory bodies by an act of state legislature or as departments by an executive resolution. They function as autonomous bodies and deal with the functions allotted to them independently of the local urban governments, that is, municipal corporations or municipalities and so forth. Thus, they are not subordinate agencies of the local municipal bodies.
Hence Statement 2 is INCORRECT
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 39
Incorrect
Answer: A
Why?-
Explanation:
Statement 1: Municipal corporations are created for the administration of big cities like Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Hyderabad, Bangalore and others. They are established in the states by the acts of the concerned state legislatures, and in the union territories by the acts of the Parliament of India.
Hence Statement 1 is CORRECT
Statement 2: Special Purpose agencies such as Urban Development authorities functional local bodies are established as statutory bodies by an act of state legislature or as departments by an executive resolution. They function as autonomous bodies and deal with the functions allotted to them independently of the local urban governments, that is, municipal corporations or municipalities and so forth. Thus, they are not subordinate agencies of the local municipal bodies.
Hence Statement 2 is INCORRECT
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 39
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Question 17 of 25
17. Question
2 pointsIn alignment with the established Acts, Rules and Conventions, which of the following type of urban government would be a prudent choice, for a fast developing town due to industrialization?
Correct
Answer: C
Why?-
Explanation:
A notified area committee is created for the administration of two types of areas—a fast developing town due to industrialisation, and a town which does not yet fulfil all the conditions necessary for the constitution of a municipality, but which otherwise is considered important by the state government. Since it is established by a notification in the government gazette, it is called as notified area committee.
Other Options:
Town Area Committee: A town area committee is set up for the administration of a small town. It is a semi-municipal authority and is entrusted with a limited number of civic functions like drainage, roads, street lighting, and conservancy.
Township: This type of urban government is established by the large public enterprises
to provide civic amenities to its staff and workers who live in the housing
colonies built near the plant.
Town improvement trust: The states have set up certain agencies to undertake designated activities or specific functions that ‘legitimately’ belong to the domain of
municipal corporations or municipalities or other local urban governments. In other words, these are function-based and not area-based. They are known as ‘single purpose’, ‘uni-purpose’ or ‘special purpose’ agencies or ‘functional local bodies’. Town improvement trust is one such agency.
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 39
Incorrect
Answer: C
Why?-
Explanation:
A notified area committee is created for the administration of two types of areas—a fast developing town due to industrialisation, and a town which does not yet fulfil all the conditions necessary for the constitution of a municipality, but which otherwise is considered important by the state government. Since it is established by a notification in the government gazette, it is called as notified area committee.
Other Options:
Town Area Committee: A town area committee is set up for the administration of a small town. It is a semi-municipal authority and is entrusted with a limited number of civic functions like drainage, roads, street lighting, and conservancy.
Township: This type of urban government is established by the large public enterprises
to provide civic amenities to its staff and workers who live in the housing
colonies built near the plant.
Town improvement trust: The states have set up certain agencies to undertake designated activities or specific functions that ‘legitimately’ belong to the domain of
municipal corporations or municipalities or other local urban governments. In other words, these are function-based and not area-based. They are known as ‘single purpose’, ‘uni-purpose’ or ‘special purpose’ agencies or ‘functional local bodies’. Town improvement trust is one such agency.
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 39
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Question 18 of 25
18. Question
2 pointsAccording to 69th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1991, Union territory of Delhi has been provided with a legislative assembly. But, it is not allowed to make laws on which of the following subjects in State List?
1.Public Order
2.Police
3.Communications
4.Land
5.Electricity
Select the answer using the Codes below:
Correct
Answer:C
Why?-[ UPSC 2013-CORRECT/INCORRECT-In the case of a Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support + In news- Frequent tussle between Centre and Delhi govt.]
Explanation:
The legislative assembly of Delhi can make laws on any subject of the State List (except public order, police and land) and the Concurrent List.
Hence the answer is C.
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 40
Incorrect
Answer:C
Why?-[ UPSC 2013-CORRECT/INCORRECT-In the case of a Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support + In news- Frequent tussle between Centre and Delhi govt.]
Explanation:
The legislative assembly of Delhi can make laws on any subject of the State List (except public order, police and land) and the Concurrent List.
Hence the answer is C.
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 40
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Question 19 of 25
19. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following Statements is/Are CORRECT?
1.The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration of tribal areas in the four northeastern States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Manipur.
2.Under fifth Schedule, Tribal Advisory council in the States having scheduled areas shall Consist of 20 Members.
3.Under fifth Schedule, The Governor is empowered to declare an area to be a Scheduled Area.
Correct
Answer: B
Why? – [UPSC previous questions related to Fifth and Sixth Schedules+ Powers of the President and Governor to restrict the Parliamentary laws]
Explanation:
Statement 1: The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration of tribal areas in the four northeastern States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram [Not Manipur].
Hence Statement 1 is INCORRECT
Statement 2: According to fifth Schedule, Each state having scheduled areas has to establish a tribes advisory council to advise on welfare and advancement of the scheduled tribes. It is to consist of 20 members, three-fourths of whom are to be the representatives of the scheduled tribes in the state legislative assembly.
Hence Statement 2 is CORRECT
Statement 3: Under fifth Schedule, The president [Not the Governor] is empowered to declare an area to be a scheduled area. He can also increase or decrease its area, alter its boundary lines, rescind such designation or make fresh orders for such redesignation on an area in consultation with the governor of the state concerned.
Hence Statement 3 is INCORRECT
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 41
Incorrect
Answer: B
Why? – [UPSC previous questions related to Fifth and Sixth Schedules+ Powers of the President and Governor to restrict the Parliamentary laws]
Explanation:
Statement 1: The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration of tribal areas in the four northeastern States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram [Not Manipur].
Hence Statement 1 is INCORRECT
Statement 2: According to fifth Schedule, Each state having scheduled areas has to establish a tribes advisory council to advise on welfare and advancement of the scheduled tribes. It is to consist of 20 members, three-fourths of whom are to be the representatives of the scheduled tribes in the state legislative assembly.
Hence Statement 2 is CORRECT
Statement 3: Under fifth Schedule, The president [Not the Governor] is empowered to declare an area to be a scheduled area. He can also increase or decrease its area, alter its boundary lines, rescind such designation or make fresh orders for such redesignation on an area in consultation with the governor of the state concerned.
Hence Statement 3 is INCORRECT
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 41
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Question 20 of 25
20. Question
2 pointsAssertion: There is a possibility of Influencing Election Commission of India by the political parties, especially the ruling party.
Reason: The Constitution has not debarred the retiring election Commissioners from any further appointment by the government
Correct
Answer: A
Why? -UPSC 2002 question on Chief Election Commissioner.
Explanation:
The Constitution has not debarred the retiring election Commissioners from any further appointment by the government. Hence, the election commissioners can be influenced by the ruling party or any other party with the promise of lucrative posting after retirement. So , many experts have advised for the necessary amendment to ensure the independence of Election watchdog –i.e. Election Commission of India.
Hence the Answer is A
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 42
Incorrect
Answer: A
Why? -UPSC 2002 question on Chief Election Commissioner.
Explanation:
The Constitution has not debarred the retiring election Commissioners from any further appointment by the government. Hence, the election commissioners can be influenced by the ruling party or any other party with the promise of lucrative posting after retirement. So , many experts have advised for the necessary amendment to ensure the independence of Election watchdog –i.e. Election Commission of India.
Hence the Answer is A
Source: INDIAN POLITY-5TH EDITION-M LAXMI KANTH-CHAPTER 42
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Question 21 of 25
21. Question
2 pointsWith reference to the National Anti-profiteering Authority (NAA) under GST, consider the following statements:
- It will be headed by the Finance Secretary
- Its aim is to ensure that the full benefits of input tax credits and reduced GST rates on supply of goods or services flow to the consumers
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: b)
http://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/11/17/insights-daily-current-affairs-17-november-2017/
The establishment of the NAA, to be headed by a senior officer of the level of Secretary to the Government of India with four Technical Members from the Centre and/or the States, is one more measure aimed at reassuring consumers that Government is fully committed to take all possible steps to ensure the benefits of implementation of GST in terms of lower prices of the goods and services reach them.
The “anti-profiteering” measures enshrined in the GST law provide an institutional mechanism to ensure that the full benefits of input tax credits and reduced GST rates on supply of goods or services flow to the consumers. This institutional framework comprises the NAA, a Standing Committee, Screening Committees in every State and the Directorate General of Safeguards in the Central Board of Excise & Customs (CBEC).
Incorrect
Solution: b)
http://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/11/17/insights-daily-current-affairs-17-november-2017/
The establishment of the NAA, to be headed by a senior officer of the level of Secretary to the Government of India with four Technical Members from the Centre and/or the States, is one more measure aimed at reassuring consumers that Government is fully committed to take all possible steps to ensure the benefits of implementation of GST in terms of lower prices of the goods and services reach them.
The “anti-profiteering” measures enshrined in the GST law provide an institutional mechanism to ensure that the full benefits of input tax credits and reduced GST rates on supply of goods or services flow to the consumers. This institutional framework comprises the NAA, a Standing Committee, Screening Committees in every State and the Directorate General of Safeguards in the Central Board of Excise & Customs (CBEC).
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Question 22 of 25
22. Question
2 pointsWith reference to the Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana, consider the following statements:
- It seeks to provide energy access to all rural residents by last mile connectivity and electricity connections, however urban regions are excluded
- Under the scheme poor households would be provided electricity connections free of cost
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: b)
http://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/11/17/insights-daily-current-affairs-17-november-2017/
First statement is wrong as it should be both rural and urban.
Qs. No. 1 What is the objective of this new scheme?
Ans. The objective of the ‘Saubhagya’ is to provide energy access to all by last mile connectivity and electricity connections to all remaining un-electrified households in rural as well as urban areas to achieve universal household electrification in the country.
Qs. No. 2 What all is included in the last mile connectivity and electricity connection to households?
Ans. The electricity connection to households include release of electricity connections by drawing a service cable from the nearest electricity pole to the household premise, installation of energy meter, wiring for a single light point with LED bulb and a mobile charging point. In case the electricity pole is not available nearby from household for drawing service cable, the erection of additional pole along with conductor and associated accessories shall also be covered under the scheme.
Qs. No. 3 Will electricity connection would be totally free of cost for every un-electrified households?
Ans. Yes. Poor households would be provided electricity connections free of cost. Other households would also be provided electricity connections under the scheme on payment of Rs.500 only which shall be recovered by the DISCOMs/Power Departments in ten (10) instalments along with electricity bills.
Qs. No.4 Does the free electricity connection also includes free power for consumption?
Ans. There is no provision in the scheme to provide free power to any category of consumers. The cost of electricity consumption shall have to be paid by the respective consumers as per prevailing tariff of the DISCOM/Power Deptt.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
http://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/11/17/insights-daily-current-affairs-17-november-2017/
First statement is wrong as it should be both rural and urban.
Qs. No. 1 What is the objective of this new scheme?
Ans. The objective of the ‘Saubhagya’ is to provide energy access to all by last mile connectivity and electricity connections to all remaining un-electrified households in rural as well as urban areas to achieve universal household electrification in the country.
Qs. No. 2 What all is included in the last mile connectivity and electricity connection to households?
Ans. The electricity connection to households include release of electricity connections by drawing a service cable from the nearest electricity pole to the household premise, installation of energy meter, wiring for a single light point with LED bulb and a mobile charging point. In case the electricity pole is not available nearby from household for drawing service cable, the erection of additional pole along with conductor and associated accessories shall also be covered under the scheme.
Qs. No. 3 Will electricity connection would be totally free of cost for every un-electrified households?
Ans. Yes. Poor households would be provided electricity connections free of cost. Other households would also be provided electricity connections under the scheme on payment of Rs.500 only which shall be recovered by the DISCOMs/Power Departments in ten (10) instalments along with electricity bills.
Qs. No.4 Does the free electricity connection also includes free power for consumption?
Ans. There is no provision in the scheme to provide free power to any category of consumers. The cost of electricity consumption shall have to be paid by the respective consumers as per prevailing tariff of the DISCOM/Power Deptt.
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Question 23 of 25
23. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following organisations/institutions publish annually the Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI)?
Correct
Solution: d)
http://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/11/16/insights-daily-current-affairs-16-november-2017/
The Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) is an annual publication by Germanwatch and Climate Action Network Europe. It evaluates the climate protection performance of 58 countries, responsible for over 90% of global energy-related CO2 emissions. CCPI 2013 publication covers CO2 emissions from the fossil fuels, except emissions from the shipping industry.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
http://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/11/16/insights-daily-current-affairs-16-november-2017/
The Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) is an annual publication by Germanwatch and Climate Action Network Europe. It evaluates the climate protection performance of 58 countries, responsible for over 90% of global energy-related CO2 emissions. CCPI 2013 publication covers CO2 emissions from the fossil fuels, except emissions from the shipping industry.
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Question 24 of 25
24. Question
2 pointsWith reference to the Bank for International Settlements (BIS), consider the following statements:
- It is an international financial organisation owned by all the UN members
- One of its mission is to act as a bank for central banks
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: b)
http://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/11/16/insights-daily-current-affairs-16-november-2017/
Established on 17 May 1930, the Bank for International Settlements (BIS) is an international financial organisation owned by 60 member central banks, representing countries from around the world that together make up about 95% of world GDP. Its head office is in Basel, Switzerland and it has two representative offices: in the Hong Kong Special Administrative Region of the People’s Republic of China and in Mexico City. The mission of the BIS is to serve central banks in their pursuit of monetary and financial stability, to foster international cooperation in those areas and to act as a bank for central banks.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
http://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/11/16/insights-daily-current-affairs-16-november-2017/
Established on 17 May 1930, the Bank for International Settlements (BIS) is an international financial organisation owned by 60 member central banks, representing countries from around the world that together make up about 95% of world GDP. Its head office is in Basel, Switzerland and it has two representative offices: in the Hong Kong Special Administrative Region of the People’s Republic of China and in Mexico City. The mission of the BIS is to serve central banks in their pursuit of monetary and financial stability, to foster international cooperation in those areas and to act as a bank for central banks.
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Question 25 of 25
25. Question
2 pointsAccessible India Campaign (AIC) is the nationwide flagship campaign of the
Correct
Solution: a)
http://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/11/15/insights-daily-current-affairs-15-november-2017/
Accessible India Campaign (AIC) is the nationwide flagship campaign of the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (DEPwD), Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
Aim:
The aim of the Campaign is to make a barrier free and conducive environment for Divyangjans all over the country. The campaign has the vision to build an inclusive society in which equal opportunities are provided for the growth and development of Persons with Disabilities (PwDs) so that they can lead productive, safe and dignified lives.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
http://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/11/15/insights-daily-current-affairs-15-november-2017/
Accessible India Campaign (AIC) is the nationwide flagship campaign of the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (DEPwD), Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
Aim:
The aim of the Campaign is to make a barrier free and conducive environment for Divyangjans all over the country. The campaign has the vision to build an inclusive society in which equal opportunities are provided for the growth and development of Persons with Disabilities (PwDs) so that they can lead productive, safe and dignified lives.
Wish you all the best!.