SOLUTIONS
INSIGHTS REVISION TEST for Preliminary Exam 2018: Test – 18 (Indian Polity and Governance)
1. In general, “Ceremonial Executive” is possible in which of the following cases?
a) Parliamentary System
b) Semi Presidential System
c) Presidential System
d) Both A and B.
Solution: a
Explanation:
Option A: In a parliamentary system, the prime minister is the head of government. Most parliamentary systems have a president or a monarch who is the nominal Head of state. In such a system, the role of president or monarch is primarily ceremonial and prime minister along with the cabinet wields effective power. Hence it is CORRECT
Option B: A semi-presidential system has both a president and a prime minister but unlike the parliamentary system the president may possess significant day-to-day powers. Hence the president is not Ceremonial Executive. So, it is INCORRECT
Option C: In a presidential system, the president is the Head of state as well as head of government. In this system the office of president is very powerful[Not ceremonial], both in theory and practice. So, it is INCORRECT
Source: NCERT Indian Constitution at work Chapter-4 Executive
2.Consider the following Statements
- The only ground for impeachment of the President in India is “Violation of the Constitution”
- The Vice President may be removed from his office by a resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by a special majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.
Which of the above are CORRECT?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Solution: a
Explanation:
Statement 1: The President can be removed from office only by Parliament by following the procedure for impeachment. This procedure requires a special majority. The only ground for impeachment is “violation of the Constitution”[But, it is to be noted that “Violation of the Constitution is not defined in the Constitution]. Hence statement 1 is CORRECT.
Statement 2: The Vice President may be removed from his office by a resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by a majority of total membership of house (effective majority) and agreed to by the Lok Sabha. Special majority is not needed. Hence statement 2 is INCORRECT.
Source: NCERT Indian Constitution at work Chapter-4 Executive
3. Which of the following options will describe the Constituent Function of the Parliament?
a) Approving the Annual Financial Statement introduced by the Union Finance Minister.
b) Passing Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, giving effect to the Directive Principles of State Policy.
c) Passing Goods and Services tax related Amendment to the Constitution
d) Requesting for discussion through Adjournment motion
Solution: c
Similar Previous Question: UPSC 2014 question on “Constitutional government”
Explanation:
Option A: It is Financial Function of the Parliament. The financial powers of the Parliament involve grant of resources to the government to implement its programmes. The government has to give an account to the legislature about the money it has spent and resources that it wishes to rise. The legislature also ensures that the government does not misspend or overspend. This is done through the budget and annual financial statements.
Option B: It is a Legislative Function. As part of this, the Parliament enacts legislations for the country.
Option C: The Parliament has the power of discussing and enacting changes to the Constitution. The constituent powers of both the houses are similar. All constitutional amendments have to be approved by a special majority of both Houses. Since GST related amendment is Constituent Function.
Option D: Since adjournment motion draws attention of the house to a matter of urgent public importance and can also involve an element of censure, it can be part of either Debating function or Control of Executive and ensuring its accountability.
Source: NCERT Indian Constitution at work Chapter-5 Legislature
4. Consider the following Statements
- There is no situation in which the President can exercise the powers using his or her own discretion since the President in India is “Ceremonial Executive”.
- If someone becomes a prime minister or minister without being an MP, such a person must get elected to the Lok Sabha within six months.
- As per the Indian Constitution, the Council of ministers at Centre shall not exceed 15 percent of total number of members of the House of the People.
Which of the above are INCORRECT?
a) 2 and 3
b) 1 and 3
c) 1 and 2
d) All
Solution: c
Explanation:
Statement 1: Constitutionally, the President has a right to be informed of all important matters and deliberations of the Council of Ministers. The Prime Minister is obliged to furnish all the information that the President may call for. Besides this, there are at least three situations where the President can exercise the powers using his or her own discretion.
Firstly, the President can send back the advice given by the Council of Ministers and ask the Council to reconsider the decision. In doing this, the President acts on his (or her) own discretion.
Secondly, the President also has veto power by which he can withhold or refuse to give assent to Bills (other than Money Bill) passed by the Parliament.
The third kind of discretion arises more out of political circumstances-when no Political party/Coalition secures adequate majority of seats to form the government. Now, the President has to decide whom to appoint as the Prime Minister. In such a situation, the President has to use his own discretion.
Hence statement 1 is INCORRECT.
Statement 2: If someone becomes a prime minister or minister without being an MP, such a person must get elected to the Parliament within six months. It is not mandatory to get elected to the Lok Sabha only. He or she can get elected to the Rajya Sabha.
Hence statement 2 is INCORRECT.
Statement 3: As per the 91st Constitution amendment the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15 percent of total number of members of the House of the People (or Assembly, in the case of the States). Hence statement 3 is CORRECT.
Source: NCERT Indian Constitution at work Chapter-4 Executive
5.Which of the following articles in the Constitution stipulate that Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha?
a) 110
b) 109
c) 113
d) It is just a Rule of the Parliament, not provided in the Constitution
Solution: b
Explanation:
Source: NCERT Indian Constitution at work Chapter-5 Legislature
6.Which of the following provisions can be amended by a simple majority of the two houses of the Parliament?
- Delimitation of Constituencies
- Representation of States in Parliament
- Elections to Parliament and state Legislatures
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All
Solution: c
Explanation:
STATEMENT 1 and 3: Can be amended by the Simple Majority of the two houses of the Parliament [outside the Scope of Article 368]. Hence statement 1 & 3 is CORRECT.
STATEMENT 2: Representation of States in Parliament is related to the Federal Structure of the Constitution. Hence it requires not only Special majority of the Parliament but also the Consent of half of the States. Hence statement 2 is INCORRECT.
Source: Indian Polity-M Laxmikanth [3rd Edition]-Chapter on Constitutional Amendment.
7. Consider the following Statements.
- The Prevention of Insults to National Honor Act (1971) prevents disrespect not only to the National flag and the National Anthem but also to the Constitution of India.
- Respecting the National Flag and National Anthem is a Moral Duty.
- Living wage is a mean between Fair wage and Minimum Wage.
Which of the above are CORRECT?
a) 2 only
b)1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 only
Solution: d
Explanation:
Statement 1: The Prevention of Insults to National Honor Act (1971) prevents disrespect to the Constitution of India, the National flag and the National Anthem. Hence statement 1 is CORRECT.
Statement 2: Respecting the Constitution, the National Flag and National Anthem is a Civic Duty. Hence statement 2 is INCORRECT.
Among the Fundamental Duties, some are civic duties while others are moral duties. For example, cherishing noble ideals of freedom struggle is a moral precept.
Statement 3: Minimum wage includes the bare needs of life like food, shelter and clothing. In addition to these bare needs, a living wage includes education, health, insurance etc. A fair wage is a mean between ‘living wage’ and ‘minimum wage’. Hence statement 3 is INCORRECT.
Source: Indian Polity-M Laxmikanth [3rd Edition]-Chapter on Directive Principles of State Policy.
8. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following
- Fundamental Rights
- Fundamental Duties
- Directive Principles of the State Policy
Which of the above provisions of the Constitution of India is/are fulfilled by the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, recently implemented by the government of India?
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) All
Solution: b
Similar Previous Question: UPSC 2010 question related to National Social Assistance Program
Explanation: Article 42 directs the State to make provision for just and humane conditions for work and Maternity relief. The Maternity Benefit Act represents a significant step towards the fulfillment of the same. Hence the Answer is B.
Note: One might stretch the argument for Fundamental rights by quoting Right to Life under Article 21. But, as per the available answer keys for UPSC 2010 question; we arrived at the answer as iii only.
9.Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
- The Flag code of India, 2002 says that the lettering of any kind shall not be put upon the Flag.
- Flag code does not allow any flag except UN flag, being hoisted, beside the national flag, to be placed higher than the latter.
- The matter regarding allowing a State to have its own flag comes under the Jurisdiction of Ministry of Home Affairs.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All
Solution: c
Why this Question?:
In the Context of Karnataka Government’s initiative to have Own State Flag. Karnataka will be the Second State to have its Own flag [after Jammu and Kashmir], if the Centre Approves it.
Explanation:
Statement 2: Flag code does not allow any flag being hoisted beside the national flag , to be placed higher than the latter. No exception for the UN flag. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Interested students can glance through this: https://mha.gov.in/sites/upload_files/mha/files/flagcodeofindia_070214.pdf
10. Indian Constitution allows “Declaration of One’s religious beliefs and faith openly and freely”. This falls under which of the following categories?
a) Right to Practice
b) Right to Propagate
c) Freedom of Conscience
d) Right to Profess
Solution: d
Explanation:
Option A: Right to Practice includes “Performance of religious worship, rituals, ceremonies and exhibition of beliefs and ideas”. Hence option A is INCORRECT.
Option B: Right to Propagate covers “Transmission and dissemination of one’s religious beliefs to others or exposition of the tenets of one’s religion”. Hence option B is INCORRECT.
Option C: Freedom of Conscience refers to “Inner freedom of an individual to mould his relationship with God or Creatures in whatever way he/she desires”. Hence option is INCORRECT.
Option D: Right to Profess means “Declaration of One’s religious beliefs and faith openly and freely”. Hence option D is CORRECT.
Source: Indian Polity-M Laxmikanth-Chapter on Fundamental Rights.
11. Consider the following Statements with respect to Right to Freedom of Religion[provided in the Indian Constitution].
- Rights of Religious dominations to manage their own affairs are subject to Public Order, Morality, Health and Other provisions relating to Fundamental Rights.
- A fee cannot be levied for the promotion of any particular religion under Article 27 of Indian Constitution.
Which of the above are CORRECT?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Solution: d
Explanation:
Statement 1: While Article 25 is subjected to Public Order, Morality, Health and Other provisions relating to Fundamental Rights, Article 26 [Rights of Religious dominations to manage their own affairs] is subjected to only Public Order, Morality, Health but not Other provisions relating to Fundamental Rights. Hence statement 1 is INCORRECT.
Statement 2: Article 27 lays down that no person shall be compelled to pay any taxes for the promotion or maintenance of any particular religion or religious denomination. This provision prohibits only levy of a tax and not a fee. This is because the purpose of a fee is to control secular administration of religious institutions and not to promote or maintain religion. Thus, a fee can be levied on pilgrims to provide them some special service or safety measures. Hence statement 2 is INCORRECT
Source: Indian Polity-M Laxmikanth-Chapter on Fundamental Rights.
12.Freedom of speech and expression is not subjected to which one of the following explicitly mentioned “reasonable restrictions”?
a) Defamation
b) Decency
c) Overthrow of the state
d) Security of the state
Solution: c
Explanation:
The State can impose reasonable restrictions on the exercise of freedom of speech and expression on the grounds of sovereignty and integrity of India, security of the state, friendly relations with foreign states, public order, decency or morality, contempt of court, defamation and incitement to an offence. “Overthrow of the state” is not explicitly mentioned.
Source: Indian Polity-M Laxmikanth-Chapter on Fundamental Rights.
13. Consider the following Statements.
- International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR) does NOT cover Right to Social Security and insurance.
- India is not a signatory to ICCPR.
Which of the following are true?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Solution: a
Similar Previous Question: UPSC 2010-UN Convention on the Rights of the Child ; UPSC 2011-Universal Declaration of Human Rights
Explanation:
Statement 1: ICCPR is a multilateral treaty adopted by the UNGA in 1966. It commits its parties to respect the civil and political rights of individuals, including the right to life, freedom of religion, freedom of speech, freedom of assembly, electoral rights and rights to due process and a fair trial. it doesn’t cover Right to Social security. Right to Social Security is covered under International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights [ICESCR]. Hence statement 1 is CORRECT
Statement 2: India is signatory to both ICCPR and ICESCR. Hence statement 2 is INCORRECT
14. Which of the following features are described by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar as “novel features” of the Constitution?
a) Fundamental Rights
b) Liberty, Equality and Fraternity in the Preamble
c) Directive Principles of State Policy
d) Fundamental Duties
Solution: c
Similar previous question: UPSC 2002- Dr.B. R. Ambedkar’s view regarding Article 32
Explanation: Factual [Reason is not mentioned in the Source]
Source: Indian Polity-M Laxmikanth-Chapter on Directive Principles of State Policy.
15. Consider the following Statements regarding Directive Principles of State Policy[DPSP]:
- They resemble the “Instrument of Instructions” enumerated in Government of India Act of 1919.
- Constitution classified them into socialistic, liberal-Intellectual and Gandhian Principles.
- Granville Austin described DPSP together with Fundamental Rights as the ‘Conscience of the Constitution’
Which of the above are CORRECT?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) All
Solution: b
Explanation:
Statement 1: In the words of Dr B R Ambedkar, ‘the Directive Principles are like the instrument of instructions, which were issued to the Governor-General and to the
Governors of the colonies of India by the British Government under the Government of India Act of 1935. What is called Directive Principles is merely another name for the instrument of instructions. The only difference is that they are instructions to the legislature and the executive’. Hence statement 1 is INCORRECT
Statement 2 The Constitution does not contain any classification of Directive Principles. On the basis of their content and direction, It is only subject experts who have classified DPSP into three broad categories, viz, socialistic, Gandhian and liberal–intellectual. Hence statement 2 is INCORRECT
Statement 3:
The Directive Principles along with the Fundamental Rights contain the philosophy of the Constitution and is the soul of the Constitution. Granville Austin has described the Directive Principles and the Fundamental Rights as the ‘Conscience of the Constitution’. Hence statement 3 is CORRECT
Source: Indian Polity-M Laxmikanth-Chapter on Directive Principles of State Policy.
16. Which of the following statements are CORRECT?
- Any MP can introduce the bill pertaining to Constitutional Amendment in the Parliament.
- 42nd Constitutional amendment made it obligatory for the President to give his assent to a Constitutional Amendment bill.
- Joint sitting is not allowed in the case of Constitutional Amendment bills.
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 only
d) All
Solution: a
Explanation:
Statement 1: Members other than ministers can also introduce bills. Such bills include Constitutional Amendment bills also. But these have no chance of being passed without the support of the government. Hence statement 1 is CORRECT
Statement 2:
The president must give his assent to the bill. He can neither withhold his assent to the bill nor return the bill for reconsideration of the Parliament. The 24th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1971 made it obligatory for the President to give his assent to a constitutional Amendment Bill. 42nd Constitutional amendment made the President bound by the advise of the Cabinet. Hence statement2 is INCORRECT
Statement 3:
In case of a disagreement between the two Houses, there is no provision for holding a joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose of deliberation and passage of the bill. Hence statement 3 is CORRECT
Source: Indian Polity-M Laxmikanth[3rd Edition]-Chapter on Constitutional Amendment.
17. Consider the following Statements:
- India is an example of ‘Holding Together’ Federation.
- The seventh schedule of Indian Constitution exemplifies the Federal nature of Indian Constitution.
- Currently, India is a two-tier Federation.
Which of the following are CORRECT?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) All
Solution: a
Explanation:
Statement 1: When a large country decides to divide its power between the constituent states and the national government and the central government tends to be more powerful vis-a-vis states, such a federation is called ‘holding together’ federation. In such federation constituent units of the federation have unequal powers. Some units are granted special powers. In the light of these features, India can be termed ‘holding together’ federation; India’s “Federal with Unitary Bias” Constitution stands as a testimony to this. Spain and Belgium are the other examples.
On the other hand, the federation in which all the constituent States usually have equal power and are strong vis-a-vis the federal government is called ‘coming together’ federation. USA, Switzerland and Australia are such federations.
Hence statement 1 is CORRECT.
Statement 2: The Constitution clearly demarcates subjects, which are under the exclusive domain of the Union and those under the States. If there is any unauthorised excess of the Union government by over stepping into state’s list this can be nullified by the Judiciary on the basis of the division of powers in the seventh schedule. Thereby, federalism can be strengthened.
Hence statement 2 is CORRECT
Statement 3: Originally, India is a two-tier federation. But, after the 73rd and 74th Constitutional amendments, India has become a three-tier federation as Local governments in the form of Panchayats and Municipal corporations have got some powers in the administration of local subjects. Though the effectiveness of this decentralisation exercise is debatable, at least on paper, India is a three-tier Federation Hence statement 3 is INCORRECT.
Source: NCERT Democratic Politics -II & Indian Polity-M Laxmikanth Chapter on Salient Features of the Constitution.
18. Right to Property is
a) Legal right
b) Fundamental right
c) Constitutional right
d) No longer a right after 44th Constitutional Amendment
Solution: a
Similar previous question: UPSC 2017 question on Right to Vote.
Explanation: In 1978, the 44th amendment to the Constitution removed the right to property from the list of Fundamental Rights and converted it into a simple legal right under article 300 A.
Source: NCERT Indian Constitution at work Chapter-2 Constitution: Rights in the Indian Constitution
19.Discrimination on the grounds of “Place of residence” only is prohibited under which one of the following articles of the Constitution?
a) Article 14
b) Article 15
c) Article 16
d) None
Solution: c
Explanation:
Option b: Article 15 provides that the State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
Option c : Article 16(2) satates that no citizen shall, on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, residence or any of them, be ineligible for, or discriminated against in respect of, any employment or office under the State.
Source: Indian Polity-M Laxmikanth-Chapter on Fundamental Rights.
20. Which of the following safeguards are available to the Indian Citizens as per Article 22 of the Indian Constitution?
- No person accused of any offence shall be Compelled to be witness against himself.
- The detention of persons, who are detained under preventive detention law, cannot exceed two months without obtaining the opinion of an advisory board.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Solution: d
Explanation:
Statement 1: No self-incrimination: No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself. This protection is provided by Article 20 of the Constitution. Hence statement 1 is INCORRECT
Other protections available in respect of conviction for offences under Article 20 are
(a) No ex-post-facto law: No person shall be (i) convicted of any offence
except for violation of a law in force at the time of the commission of the
act, nor (ii) subjected to a penalty greater than that prescribed by the law in force at the time of the commission of the act.
(b) No double jeopardy: No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.
Statement 2: As per Article 22 of the Indian Constitution, the detention of a person cannot exceed three months unless an advisory board reports sufficient cause for extended detention. The board is to consist of judges of a high court. The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 has reduced the period of detention without obtaining the opinion of an advisory board from three to two months. However, this provision has not yet been brought into force, hence, the original period of three months still continues. Hence statement 3 is INCORRECT
Source: Indian Polity-M Laxmikanth-Chapter on Fundamental Rights.
21) With reference to the body mass index (BMI), consider the following statements:
- It is a value derived from the mass (weight) and height of an individual
- A person with normal weight will have BMI of 16 kg/m2
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a
http://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/10/11/insights-daily-current-affairs-11-october-2017/
The body mass index (BMI) or Quetelet index is a value derived from the mass (weight) and height of an individual. The BMI is defined as the body mass divided by the square of the body height, and is universally expressed in units of kg/m2, resulting from mass in kilograms and height in metres.
The BMI is an attempt to quantify the amount of tissue mass (muscle, fat, and bone) in an individual, and then categorize that person as underweight, normal weight, overweight, or obese based on that value. However, there is some debate about where on the BMI scale the dividing lines between categories should be placed.[1] Commonly accepted BMI ranges are underweight: under 18.5 kg/m2, normal weight: 18.5 to 25, overweight: 25 to 30, obese: over 30.
22) Consider the following statements:
- IMF supports universal basic income (UBI) in India provided India eliminates food and energy subsidies
- If India provides a universal basic income of Rs 2600 a year to every person, it will incur a fiscal cost of about 3% of GDP
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c
http://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/10/12/insights-daily-current-affairs-12-october-2017/
- IMF estimates India could provide a universal basic income (UBI) of Rs 2,600 a year to every person if it eliminates food and energy subsidies.
- Even such a modest level of UBI will incur a fiscal cost of about 3% of GDP,
23) With reference to the Hybrid Annuity Model(HAM) in the highways sector, consider the following statements:
- Under HAM, Revenue collection would be the responsibility of the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI)
- The government bears the construction and maintenance risks under HAM
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a
http://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/10/12/insights-daily-current-affairs-12-october-2017/
The Hybrid Annuity Model (HAM)
In India, the new HAM is a mix of BOT Annuity and EPC models. As per the design, the government will contribute to 40% of the project cost in the first five years through annual payments (annuity). The remaining payment will be made on the basis of the assets created and the performance of the developer.
Here, hybrid annuity means the first 40% payment is made as fixed amount in five equal installments whereas the remaining 60% is paid as variable annuity amount after the completion of the project depending upon the value of assets created. As the government pays only 40%, during the construction stage, the developer should find money for the remaining amount. Here, he has to raise the remaining 60% in the form of equity or loans. There is no toll right for the developer. Under HAM, Revenue collection would be the responsibility of the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI).
Advantage of HAM is that it gives enough liquidity to the developer and the financial risk is shared by the government. While the private partner continues to bear the construction and maintenance risks as in the case of BOT (toll) model, he is required only to partly bear the financing risk. Government’s policy is that the HAM will be used in stalled projects where other models are not applicable.
https://www.indianeconomy.net/splclassroom/what-is-hybrid-annuity-model-in-ppp/
24) The U.S. has announced its withdrawal from the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) citing that
a) UNESCO is causing financial burden to the USA
b) UNESCO is showing anti-Israel bias
c) UNESCO is thwarting US war efforts in Syria
d) None of the above
Solution: b)
http://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/10/13/insights-daily-current-affairs-13-october-2017/
The U.S. has announced its withdrawal from the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO), accusing it of “continuing anti-Israel bias.” Besides the US, Israel has also decided to pull out of UNESCO.
25) With reference to the Postal Life Insurance (PLI) in India, consider the following statements:
- It was introduced by the British
- It is not available to professionals such as doctors, engineers, chartered accountants, architects, lawyers, bankers etc
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
It is now made available to all professionals.
Postal Life Insurance (PLI) was introduced on 1st February 1884 with the express approval of the Secretary of State (for India) to Her Majesty the Queen Empress of India.
