SOLUTIONS – INSIGHTS REVISION TEST for Preliminary Exam 2018: Test – 7

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SOLUTIONS

INSIGHTS REVISION TEST for Preliminary Exam 2018: Test – 7

To give this test as QUIZ, click here.

Henceforth, we will be posting solutions separately after each Revision test.  We will also post Interactive Quiz along with this post (it’s easy to prepare quiz using plugin in early morning when traffic is low.)

 

INSIGHTS IAS REVISION PLAN FOR PRELIMS 2018 - DAILY REVISION TESTS

Welcome to Insights IAS Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam – 2018.

If you are wondering why these questions are posted, please refer to the detailed Timetable provided HERE.

These questions serve TWO purposes: One to test your revision skills; Second is to give you a glimpse into topics that you might have missed during revision. 

If you score ow marks, please don’t feel bad. Revise more effectively and try to learn from mistakes. Wish you all the best. 


1). How does the government use fiscal and monetary policy to smooth the business cycle?

a) Contractionary monetary policy to dampen excessive demand during depression, expansionary fiscal policy to increase prices in boom

b) Contractionary monetary policy to stimulate demand during depression, expansionary fiscal policy to reduce inflationary pressures in boom

c) Expansionary fiscal policy to stimulate demand during depression, contractionary monetary policy to reduce inflationary pressures in boom

d) Expansionary monetary policy to decrease prices during depression, contractionary fiscal policy to increase demand in boom

Solution:c

statement a:

Expansionary policy is focused on expanding, or increasing, the money supply in an economy.  In expansionary fiscal policy government expands the money supply in the economy via budgetary tools to either increase spending or cut taxes. Hence it’s used to create demand during depression.

How this helps in combating the depression?

  • Depressionis a sustained, long-term downturn in economic activity. It is characterized by the unemployment, low trade and commerce, low economic output etc
  • Expansionary fiscal(monetary) policy expands the amount of money in an economy. It puts more money into consumers’ hands to give them more purchasing power. It reduces unemployment by contracting public works or hiring new government workers. All these measures increase demand. That spurs consumer spending.
  • Tax cuts put more money into businesses’ hands. They use it for new investment and employees. In that way, tax cuts create jobs.

 

Contractionary policy is focused on decreasing the money supply in an economy. Contractionary fiscal policy is defined as a decrease in government expenditures and/or an increase in taxes that causes the government’s budget deficit to decrease or its budget surplus to increase. As it decreases the money supply it is used to dampen demand during the inflationary phase.

If an economy is growing too fast or for example, if unemployment is too low, an inflationary gap will form. In order to eliminate this inflationary gap a government may reduce government spending and increase taxes. A decrease in spending by the government will directly decrease aggregate demand curve by reducing government demand for goods and services. Increases in tax levels will also slow growth, as consumers will have less money to consume and invest, thereby indirectly reducing the aggregate demand curve.

 

Classical and Keynesian views of fiscal policy: The belief that expansionary and contractionary fiscal policies can be used to influence macroeconomic performance is most closely associated with Keynes and his followers. The classical view of expansionary or contractionary fiscal policies is that such policies are unnecessary because there are market mechanisms—for example, the flexible adjustment of prices and wages—which serve to keep the economy at or near the natural level of real GDP at all times. Accordingly, classical economists believe that the government should run a balanced budget each and every year.


2). Hyperinflation is typically caused by:

a) High tax rates that discourage work effort

b) Continuous expansion of the money supply to finance government budget deficits

c) Trade deficits that are caused by strong protectionist policies

d) Bad harvest because of failure of monsoons

Solution:b

Hyperinflation occurs when a country experiences very high and usually accelerating rates of inflation, rapidly eroding the real value of the local currency, and causing the population to minimize their holdings of local money. Under such conditions, the general price level within an economy increases rapidly as the official currency quickly loses real value. The value of economic items remains relatively stable in terms of foreign currencies.

Statement a : Higher tax rates decreases the money supply and hence will reduce the inflation. Hence it is wrong.

Statement c : Trade deficits will leave less resources with the government for the spending. Hence it works against the inflation. Hence it is wrong.

Statement d: bad harvest will result in loss of crops and hence income of the farmers. Though there will be supply mismatch there won’t be the steep loss of nominal rate of the currency. Hence it is wrong.

Statement b:  the money expansion through financing  budget deficits will leave more money in hands of people and business causing inflationary effect. Hence it is correct.

 


3). The value of a country’s exchange rate will tend to rise if:

a) Demand for the country’s exports increases

b) The country’s money supply increases

c) The country’s citizens travel abroad

d) Domestic interest rate decreases

Solution:a

Here exports demand rises which causes supply of dollars to be more causing the currency to appreciate. If money supply rises it may cause inflation which in turn might increase imports (thus depreciating exchange rate as imports would be more than exports in this case). The same is the case of citizen’s travel abroad. Demand for dollars will be more than supply causing depreciation of exchange rates. If interest rate decreases foreign funds would withdraw funds and invest them where they can get higher returns. Thus, only in option A, we can expect the currency of the nation to appreciate.


4). According to the Phillips curve, lower inflation rates are associated with:

a) Higher unemployment rates

b) Higher government spending

c) Larger budget deficits

d) Greater labour force participation rates

Solution: a

The Phillips curve shows the relationship between unemployment and inflation in an economy. Since its ‘discovery’ by British economist AW Phillips, it has become an essential tool to analyse macro-economic policy.

The theory states that with economic growth comes inflation, which in turn should lead to more jobs and less unemployment.


5). Which of the following will lead to a decrease in a nation’s money supply?

a) A decrease in income tax rates

b) A decrease in discount rate

c) An open market purchase of government securities by RBI

d) An increase in reserve requirements

Solution:d

Statement a : Decrease in income tax would leave more money in hands of people augmenting their purchasing power. Hence it will increase money supply. Hence it is wrong.

Statement b : decrease in discount rate or the Bank rate would decrease the cost of borrowing for the banks. And hence lending rates can be reduced propelling the borrowing by the consumers. Hence it will increase money supply. Hence it is wrong.

Statement c :  purchase of securities or OMO – open market operations purchase by RBI would increase the money supply. Hence it is wrong

Statement d:

An increase in reserve requirements such as CRR and SLR would necessarily decrease the amount of money available in the economy.

CRR- cash reserve ratio — It is the amount of money which banks must keep with RBI at all times.

 SLR- Statutory liquidity Ratio — It is the amount of money which banks must maintain with themselves at all times to manage day to day activities and indirectly manage government borrowings.

If the CRR and SLR increases the money available with bank to lend decreases and hence the money supply in the nation also decreases.

Hence it is correct.


6). Stagflation is a situation where

a) High inflation which is structural in nature

b) High inflation combined with high unemployment

c) High unemployment in agriculture

d) Unemployment adjusted for seasonal fluctuations

Solution: b

A condition of slow economic growth and relatively high unemployment – economic stagnation – accompanied by rising prices, or inflation, or inflation and a decline in Gross Domestic Product (GDP). Stagflation is an economic problem defined in equal parts by its rarity and by the lack of consensus among academics on how exactly it comes to pass.


7).  Assertion (A): Women earn very low wages, mostly piece rates in highly insecure jobs.

Reason (R): Women workers are the most disadvantaged in the labour market as they constitute a very high proportion among the low skilled informal worker category, and are engaged in low-productivity and low paying work

Consider the following statements:

a) A is correct and B is the correct explanation of A

b) A is correct and B is not the correct explanation of A

c) A is correct and B is incorrect

d) A is incorrect and B is correct

Solution: a

Women workers are the most disadvantaged in the labour market as they constitute a very high proportion among the low skilled informal worker category, and are engaged in low-productivity and low paying work. Hence the low wages.


8). Consider the following statements with respect to labour reforms and The National Career Service portal:

  1. The Universal Account Number have been effected in order to reduce the complexity in compliance and to bring transparency and accountability for better enforcement of the labour laws.
  2. The National Career Service portal links all employment portals and websites of the country
  3. The National Career Service portal provides platform for unemployed to seek government jobs

Which of the above statements is/are correct:

a) 1 and 2 Only

b) 2 and 3 Only

c) 1 Only

d) 2 Only

Solution:c

The Employees Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) has introduced the Universal Account Number (UAN) for members. The number allows portability of PF accounts from one employer to another without depending on any employer for withdrawal of EPF balance. Hence it reduces the complexity of changing and updating the PF account number rendering the process simple.

The number allows a member to view all his or her EPF accounts with current and former employers. With the number, a member can initiate the process of closing old accounts and transferring balances. The number, which has to be allotted by an employer, needs to be activated.

(Hence statement 1 is correct.)

National Career Service (NCS) Portal

This portal connects exchanges, not portals or job websites. The NCS portal was launched in July 2017 to replace the National Employment Service comprising a network of 978 employment exchanges

Third statement is wrong because it’s open for seeking jobs in all sectors – private and public based on registration of employers. Among the industries using the portal for hiring, the information and communication accounted for about 45 per cent of the vacancies posted

For critical evaluation of success of this portal, read here (in case a Mains question is asked) –

https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/info-tech/few-takers-for-govts-national-career-service-portal/article10038047.ece

 


9). Consider the following statements about maternity benefits act:

  1. As per the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017, the women are entitled to enhanced maternity leave for a period of 26 weeks (6 months) working in registered establishment under any Central or State law.
  2. Maternity leave is not given to woman who adopts a child

Which of the above statements is/are correct:

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) None of the above

Solution:a

 
The Maternity Benefit (Amendment) act, 2016

 

  • maternity benefit Act 1961 protects the employment of women during the time of her maternity and entitles her of a ‘maternity benefit’ – i.e. full paid absence from work – to take care for her child. The act is applicable to all establishments employing 10 or more persons
  • Women are eligible for 26 weeks (earlier it was 12) of maternity leave. (Hence statement 1 is correct). However, a woman with two or more children will be entitled to 12 weeks of maternity leave.
  • Maternity leave up to 12 weeks for a woman who adopts a child below the age of three months, and for commissioning mothers. The period of maternity leave will be calculated from the date the child is handed over to the adoptive or commissioning mother. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect)
  •  Every establishment with 50 or more employees to provide for crèche facilities within a prescribed distance.). The woman will be allowed four visits to the crèche in a day.
  • An employer may permit a woman to work from home, if the nature of work assigned permits her to do so. This may be mutually agreed upon by the employer and the woman.
  • Establishment  has to inform a woman of all benefits that would be available under the Bill, at the time of her appointment. Such information must be given in writing and electronically.  

 

 


10). Which of the following statements is correct:

a) Mahila Shakti Kendra scheme has been launched at the village level.

b) Nai roshini scheme if for the benefit of Tribals in India

c) Nai manzil scheme is for residents of Left Wing Extremism districts

d) All of the above is correct

Solution:a

Mahila Shakti Kendra (Pradhan Mantri Mahila Shakti Kendra Scheme (PMMSK)

1.      The scheme is part of Umbrella Scheme “Mission for Protection and Empowerment for Women” of the Union Ministry of Women and Child Development

  1. PMMSK scheme is envisioned as one stop convergent support services for empowering rural women with opportunities for skill development, employment, digital literacy, health and nutrition
  2. Under the scheme Mahila Shakti kendras will be set-up at village (Hence statement 1 is correct).
  3. It aims to improve declining child sex ratio (CSR), ensure survival and protection of the girl child, ensuring her education and empowering her to fulfil her potential.
  4. It will provide an interface for rural women to approach government for getting their entitlements and for empowering them through training and capacity building.

Nai Roshni

  1. Ministry of minority affairs
  2. It is a leadership Development Programme for Minority Women launched in 2012-13. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect).
  3. The objective is to empower and instill confidence among minority women, including their neighbours from other communities living in the same village/locality, by providing knowledge, tools and techniques for interacting with Government systems, banks and other institutions at all levels.
  4. The scheme is implemented through Non-Governmental Organizations (NGOs)

Nai Manzil Scheme

  1. Ministry of minority affairs
  2. Target group – Minority youth (including madrasa student) in 17 to 35 age group
  3. The central scheme is designed to address educational and livelihood needs of minority communities lagging behind in terms of educational attainments.
  4. It aims to provide educational intervention by giving the bridge courses to the trainees and getting them Certificates for Class XII and X from distance medium educational system.
  5. It seeks to provide trade basis skill training in four courses at the same time of formal education, in field of (i) Manufacturing (ii) Engineering (iii) Services (iv) Soft skills.
  6. Minimum 30% seats are earmarked for minority girls
  7. The scheme covers the entire country not only the LWE affected areas(Hence statement 3 is incorrect).
  8. This scheme will provide new avenues for minorities for continuing higher education and also open up employment opportunities in the organised sector.

11). Consider the following with reference to disability adjusted life years lost (DALYs):

  1. Disability adjusted life years lost (DALYs) is the sum of years of potential life lost due to premature mortality and the years of productive life lost due to disability
  2. One DALY represents the loss of the equivalent of one year of full health.

Which of the above statements is /are correct:

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) None of the above

Solution: c

The concept of disability adjusted life years lost (DALYs) was introduced in the 1993 World Development Report as a way to estimate and compare the burden of morbidity and premature mortality caused by widely varying conditions and states within and among countries

The disability-adjusted life year (DALY) is a measure of overall disease burden, expressed as the number of years lost due to ill-health, disability or early death.

(Hence statement 1 is correct)

One DALY can be thought of as one lost year of “healthy” life. (Hence statement 2 is correct).

The sum of these DALYs across the population, or the burden of disease, can be thought of as a measurement of the gap between current health status and an ideal health situation where the entire population lives to an advanced age, free of disease and disability.

DALYs for a disease or health condition are calculated as the sum of the Years of Life Lost (YLL) due to premature mortality in the population and the Years Lost due to Disability (YLD) for people living with the health condition or its consequences:

 UPSC, IAS


12).consider the following statements about anti-microbial resistance:

  1. Antimicrobial resistance (AMR) occurs when microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungi and parasites change in ways that render the medications used to cure the infections they cause ineffective
  2. The recent Moscow declaration by WHO aims to end all antimicrobial resistant diseases gradually through coordinated efforts of member nations

 

Which of the above statements is/ are correct:

 

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) 1 and 2

d) None of the above

Solution: a

Statement 2 Justification:

  • A WHO global ministerial conference held in Moscow, Russian Federation, in November2017 concluded with the adoption of the Moscow Declaration to End TB.
  • It intends to increase multi-sectoral action and enhance accountability in the global TB response towards ending tuberculosis (TB) by 2030.
  • The declaration outlines the importance of international action to address key areas to respond to TB: sustainable financing, pursuing science, research and development and the establishment of a multi-sectoral accountability framework.

Statement 2 is wrong as it’s related to only ending TB.

Q: What is antimicrobial resistance?

A: Antimicrobial resistance (AMR) is the ability of a microorganism (like bacteria, viruses, and some parasites) to stop an antimicrobial (such as antibiotics, antivirals and antimalarials) from working against it. As a result, standard treatments become ineffective, infections persist and may spread to others. The microorganisms that has become resistant to most antimicrobials are referred to as “superbugs”.

(Hence statement 1 is correct).

Antimicrobial resistance is the broader term for resistance in different types of microorganisms and encompasses resistance to antibacterial, antiviral, antiparasitic and antifungal drugs.

Antimicrobial resistance occurs naturally but is facilitated by the inappropriate use of medicines, for example using antibiotics for viral infections such as cold or flu, or sharing antibiotics. Low-quality medicines, wrong prescriptions and poor infection prevention and control also encourage the development and spread of drug resistance. Lack of government commitment to address these issues, poor surveillance and a diminishing arsenal of tools to diagnose, treat and prevent also hinder the control of antimicrobial drug resistance.

Q: What is the difference between antibiotic and antimicrobial resistance?

A: Antibiotic resistance occurs when bacteria change in response to the use of antibiotics used to treat bacterial infections (such as urinary tract infections, pneumonia, bloodstream infections) making them ineffective.

Antimicrobial resistance is a broader term, encompassing resistance to drugs that treat infections caused by other microbes as well, such as parasites (e.g. malaria or helminths), viruses (e.g. HIV) and fungi (e.g. Candida).


13). Which of the following has the highest weightage in Index of Eight core Industries:

a) Refining

b) Cement

c) Electricity

d) Coal

Solution:a

IAS, IAS coaching, UPSC

The Index of Eight Core Industries measures the performance of eight core industries i.e. Coal, Crude Oil, Natural Gas, Petroleum Refinery Products, Fertilizers, Steel, Cement and Electricity. In line with the base year change in IIP, Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion, revised the base year of Index of Eight Core Industries from 2004-05 to 2011-12. The industries included in the eight core industries comprise about 40 per cent weight in the IIP.


14). Which scheme is related to the slogan “Creative India, Innovative India?”

  1. Scheme for IPR Awareness
  2. ATAL tinkering Labs
  3. Self-help groups
  4. Stand Up India

Which of the above is/are correct

a) Only 1

b) 1 and 2

c) 1,2 and 4

d) All of the above

Solution: b

National Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) Policy 

Enacted in 2016 with slogan Creative India, Innovative India

Taking forward the National Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) Policy 2016, a ‘Scheme for IPR Awareness – Creative India; Innovative India’ has been launched by Cell for IPR Promotion and Management (CIPAM) under the aegis of the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion.

The Scheme aims at raising IPR awareness amongst students, youth, authors, artists, budding inventors and professionals to inspire them to create, innovate and protect their creations and inventions across India including Tier 1, Tier 2, Tier 3 cities as well as rural areas in the next 3 years.

The Scheme for IPR Awareness aims to conduct over 4000 IPR awareness workshops/seminars in academic institutions (schools and colleges) and the industry, including MSMEs and Startups, as also IP training and sensitization programmes for enforcement agencies and the judiciary.

Workshops will cover all vital IP topics including international filing procedures, promotion of Geographical Indications and highlighting the ill effects of piracy and counterfeiting.

The Scheme for IPR Awareness would be implemented through partner organizations to promote innovation and entrepreneurship, for which complete details can be viewed at

 http://dipp.nic.in/whats-new/scheme-ipr-awareness.

Atal Innovation mission:

  • Atal Tinkering Labs are dedicated works spaces where students (Class 6th to Class 12th) learn innovation skills and develop ideas that will go on to transform India.
  • The labs are powered to acquaint students with state-of-the-art equipment such as 3D printers, robotics & electronics development tools, IoT & sensors etc.
  • The lab activities are designed to spur the spark of creativity, and go beyond regular curriculum and text book learning. The labs will let students explore skills of future such as design and computational thinking, adaptive learning and artificial intelligence.

15). Consider the following statements:

  1. Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP) is aimed at generating self-employment opportunities through establishment of micro-enterprises in the non-farm sector by helping traditional artisans and unemployed youth.
  2. Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP) is an initiative of the Ministry of Labour

Which of the above is/are correct:

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) None of the above

Solution: a

Prime Minister Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP)

 

  • PMEGP is a central sector scheme administered by the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MoMSME).

 

  1. Nodal agency —
  • national level — Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC)
  • state level — State KVIC Directorates, State Khadi and Village Industries Boards (KVIBs), District Industries Centres (DICs) and banks
  1. Only new projects are considered for sanction under PMEGP
  2. Who can apply — Any individual, above 18 years of age. At least VIII standard pass for projects costing above Rs.10 lakh in the manufacturing sector and above Rs. 5 lakh in the business / service sector. Self Help Groups, Institutions registered under Societies Registration Act,1860; Production Co-operative Societies, and Charitable Trusts are also eligible
  3. Objectives
    (i)To generate employment opportunities in rural as well as urban areas of the country through setting up of new self-employment ventures/projects/micro enterprises.
    (ii) To bring together widely dispersed traditional artisans/ rural and urban unemployed youth and give them self-employment opportunities to the extent possible, at their place.
    (iii) To provide continuous and sustainable employment to a large segment of traditional and prospective artisans and rural and urban unemployed youth in the country, so as to help arrest migration of rural youth to urban areas.
    (iv) To increase the wage earning capacity of artisans and contribute to increase in the growth rate of rural and urban employment.

 


 

16). Consider the following statements about Khelo India Programme:

  1. The Programme aims at mainstreaming sport as a tool for individual development, community development, economic development and national development
  2. Each athlete selected under the scheme shall receive an annual scholarship worth Rs. 5.00 lakh for 8 consecutive years.
  3. This is the first time ever that a long-term athlete development pathway would be made available to talented youngsters to excel in competitive sports.

Which of the above statements is/are correct:

a) 1, 2 and 3

b) 1 and 2

c) 2 and 3

d) 1 and 3

Solution: a

Khelo India programme

  1. Ministry of youth affairs and sports
  2. launched in 2016 for building inclusive and comprehensive sports ecosystem in country
  3. aims at inculcating sports into the day to day lives of youngsters early on in their lives
  4. Subsumed three different schemes : Rajiv Gandhi Khel Abhiyan (RGKA),National Sports Talent Search Scheme (NSTSS) and Urban Sports Infrastructure Scheme (USIS).
  5. Recently Khelo India School Games, which are a part of the Khelo India programme were being held at New Delhi

Objectives

  • Promote Sports for All as well as Sports for Excellence and create an active population with healthy lifestyle.
  • Mainstream sport as tool for individual development, community development, economic development and national development.
  • Impact entire sports ecosystem, including infrastructure, community sports, talent identification, coaching for excellence, competition structure and sports economy.
  • Engage youth living in disturbed and deprived areas, in sporting activities, to wean them away from unproductive and disruptive activities and mainstream them in nation-building process.

 

For more information

http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=170948


17). Consider the following statements about diarrhea control in India:

  1. The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has launched the Intensified Diarrhea Control Fortnight (IDCF) in order to intensify efforts to reduce child deaths due to diarrhea
  2. Anganawadi worker would undertake distribution of ORS packets to households with under-five children in her village.

Which of the above statements is/are correct:

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) None of the above

Solution: a

Intensified Diarrhea Control Fortnight (IDCF)

  1. The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
  2. Aim – to intensify efforts to reduce child deaths due to diarrhea (Hence statement 1 is true)
  3. Through this initiative, the Ministry will mobilize health personnel, State Governments and other stakeholders to prioritize investment in control of diarrhea
  4. It aims to create mass awareness campaigns on hygiene and diarrhea treatment— a combination of ORS solution and Zinc tablets – will be conducted at state, district and village levels
  5. ASHA worker would undertake distribution of ORS packets to households with under-five children in her village (Hence statement 2 is wrong)
  6. ORS-Zinc Corners will be set-up at health care facilities and non-health facilities such as Schools and Anganwadi centres
  7. Frontline workers will hold demonstration of ORS preparation, along with counselling on feeding during diarrhea and hygiene and sanitation
  8. A range of preventive and promotive interventions are already being implemented such as Vitamin A supplementation, promoting early initiation of breastfeeding, exclusive breastfeeding up to 6 months and appropriate complementary feeding apart from capacity building and service provision of staff for management of childhood diarrhea in all government health facilities. Besides this, introduction of Rotavirus vaccine under UIP will also help in reducing diarrhea mortality due to rotavirus disease.

 

Diarrhea

  1. cause — infection of the intestines due to either a virus, bacteria, or parasite – a condition also known as gastroenteritis
  2. Though there has been decline in IMR, MMR an estimated 1.1 million children die each year in India, including approximately 1.1 lakh deaths due to diarrhea
  3. Almost all the deaths due to diarrhea can be averted by preventing and treating dehydration by use of ORS (Oral Rehydration Solution), administration of Zinc tablets along with adequate nutritional intake by the child. Diarrhea can be prevented with safe drinking water, sanitation, breastfeeding/appropriate nutrition and hand-washing.

 

 


18). Internet saathi programme has been launched by Google and Tata Trusts which is mainly for the benefit of:

a) Tribal India

b) Rural youth

c) Urban Wi-Fi hotspots

d) Rural women

Solution: d

Internet Saathi

  1. India has the world’s second largest internet population with over 400 million users, but only 30% are women. In rural India, only 1 out of 10 internet users is a woman.
  2. To bridge this gap the internet saathi programme was started in 2015 as part of Google’s ‘Helping Women Get Online’ campaign, in order to create awareness about the benefits of Internet among women in rural India. (hence the answer is D)
  3. It is a digital literacy programme among rural women that focus on training women & larger communities to learn and explore various uses and benefits of the Internet.
  4. Tata Trusts — train women master trainers called “saathis” identified from Self Help Groups (SHGs) and Women’s federations.
  5. Google — provide the tablet and mobile devices along with training material. It will also train the master trainers.

19). With reference to the Zero Hunger Programme , consider the following statements:

  1. India’s ambitious Zero Hunger Programme through interventions in farm sector was launched with a focus on agriculture, nutrition and health.
  2. This is a dedicated farm-based programme in sync with Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) to end hunger by 2030.
  3. This program is an initiative of the Ministry of Agriculture

Which of the above statements is/are correct:

a) 1 Only

b) 2 and 3 Only

c) 1 and 2 Only

d) 1,2 and 3

Solution: c

Zero hunger programme

  1. Launched on World Food Day (oct 16),2017
  2. 3 states —
  3. a) Uttar Pradesh ( Gorakhpur)
  4. b) Odisha(Koraput)
  5.        c) Maharashtra (Thane )
  6. These three would act as a model of an integrated approach to deal with hunger and malnutrition by adopting suitable agricultural\horticultural practices (Hence statement 1 is correct).
  7. initiated by — Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) in support of Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR), the M S Swaminathan Research Foundation and the Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council (BIRAC). (Hence statement 3 is wrong)
  8. Components of the program
  • organisations of farming system for nutrition
  • setting up genetic gardens for biofortified plants. This garden also contains germplasm of naturally biofortified crops through plant breeding & has plants and crops that help supplement micro-nutrient deficiencies, including iron, zinc, vitamin A and iodine among others.
  • initiation of ‘Zero Hunger’ training
  • measuring impact of intervention by identifying the nutritional maladies in each district and applying appropriate agricultural/horticultural and animal husbandry remedies
  1. This is a dedicated farm-based programme in sync with Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) to end hunger by 2030. (Hence statement 2 is correct).

 

What’s zero hunger challenge?

  1. It is a global call-to-action which aims to build support around the vision of achieving Zero Hunger.
  2. It was launched by the UN Secretary General Ban Ki-moon and calls on everyone – governments, the private sector, NGOs, the public – to do their part to turn the vision into a reality.
  3. There are five key elements in the ZHC vision:
  4.  Zero stunted children less than 2 years
    2.    100% access to adequate food all year round
    3.    All food systems are sustainable
    4.    100% increase in smallholder productivity and income
    5.    Zero loss or waste of food

 

Need of such a programme for India

Despite India being world’s second largest food producer it has second highest under-nourished population in the world.

 

FAO — ‘The State of Food Security and Nutrition in the World, 2017” report states

·         14.5% of our population is undernourished
·         190.7million people go hungry everyday
·         21.0% of children under 5 are underweight
·         38.4% of children under 5 years of age are stunted
·         1 in 4 children malnourished
·         3,000 children in India die every day from poor diet related illness
·         24% of under-five deaths in India
·         30% of neo-natal deaths in India

 

Global Hunger Index (GHI) — India ranked 100th among 119 countries

 

·         India was placed in high end of “serious” category

·         20% of child wasting

·         33% of child stunting

 


20) With reference to election of the President of India, consider the following statements:

 

  1. The voting for the Presidential election takes place by means of secret ballot through single transferable vote
  2. The Indian Constitution allows application of party whip during the election of the President
  3. The electoral college to elect the President comprises all Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha MPs and all the members of the 31 legislative assemblies

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 Only

b) 1 Only

c) 2 and 3 Only

d) 1,2 and 3

 

Solution: b)

 

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/07/21/insights-daily-current-affairs-21-july-2017/

 

 

Statement 2 is incorrect because party whip can not be applied. Instead party heads appeal for a conscience vote.

 

Statement 3 is wrong because it should be ‘ELECTED’ members, not ALL members of Parliament.

 

The President is indirectly elected by means of an electoral college consisting of the elected members of the Parliament of India and the Legislative assemblies of the States and the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry. The number and value of votes are based on the population in 1971 rather than the current population, as a result of the 42nd Amendment, and extended by the 84th Amendment,[1] with the intention to encourage family planning programs in the states by ensuring that states are not penalized for lowering their population growth. The Vice President is elected by a different electoral college, consisting of members {elected as well as nominated} of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

 

http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/presidential-election-how-are-the-votes-calculated/article19108121.ece

 


 

21) With reference to the India-Japan Agreement for Cooperation in the Peaceful Uses of Nuclear Energy, consider the following statements:

 

  1. India is the first non-member of the non-proliferation treaty (NPT) to have signed such a deal with Japan
  2. The deal includes a non-negotiable clause where Japan can terminate the deal without any notice if in case India breaks the nuclear testing moratorium

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Solution: a)

 

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/07/22/insights-daily-current-affairs-22-july-2017/

 

 

  • India is the first non-member of the non-proliferation treaty (NPT) to have signed such a deal with Japan. The deal will help India access Japan’s nuclear market.
  • The deal includes the option that Japan can give a year’s notice before terminating it in case India breaks the nuclear testing moratorium that it had extended to the Nuclear Suppliers Group in 2008. (hence statement 2 is wrong)

 


22) The Government Spending Watch programme which analyses the budgets of  low and middle income countries, is an initiative of the

a) IMF

b) World Bank

c) UNDP

d) None of the above

 

Solution: d)

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/07/22/insights-daily-current-affairs-22-july-2017/

 

It is the initiative of  Development Finance International (DFI) Group in cooperation with Oxfam – both are non-profit organisations.

The Government Spending Watch programme is the only global database tracking government spending on the SDGs in 82 countries and has become the “go to” location for transparent comparable and up-to-date (2016) data and analysis on government spending for a wide range of UN and multilateral organisations, CSOs and bilateral donors. It will shortly be expanded to cover 155 countries and updated for 2017 data. This programme has been run in a formal partnership with Oxfam.

http://blogs.worldbank.org/publicsphere/government-spending-watch-new-initiative-you-really-need-know-about

(This question is based on July 22 current affairs on  index and the inequality report where DFI is mentioned)


23) With reference to the Monetary Policy Committee, consider the following statements:

  1. Each member of the MPC has one vote and in case the numbers are equal, the finance minister has the casting vote
  2. MPC has to hold meetings at least once in all months of the financial year
  3. The MPC will have three government nominated members

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 2 Only

b) 2 and 3 Only

c) 1 and 3 Only

d) 3 Only

Solution: d)

Statement-1: It is wrong as RBI governor has casting vote

Statement-2: It is wrong as MPC has to meet minimum 4 times a year

Third statement is correct. Out of 6 members, 3 are nominated by the government

For more:

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/07/24/insights-daily-current-affairs-24-july-2017/


24) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has released Operational Guidelines for Planning and Implementation of Family Participatory Care (FPC) for improving

a) Health of cancer patients

b) Health of people facing mental illness

c) Health of elderly people in family

d) None of the above

Solution: d)

 

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/07/29/insights-daily-current-affairs-29-july-2017/

 

It is for improving newborn health.

Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has released Operational Guidelines for Planning and Implementation of Family Participatory Care (FPC) for improving newborn health. The new guidelines have been released by the government for improving health of babies in special units across the country.

Key facts:

  • The guidelines will serve as a guiding document for those intending to introduce FPC in their facility as an integral part of facility based newborn care.
  • The operational guidelines of FPC are for all stakeholders involved in the process of planning and delivering newborn care.
  • Under the guidelines—Operational Guidelines for Planning and Implementation of Family Participatory Care (FPC)—parent-attendants will be trained in newborn care through a structured programme including an audio-visual module and a training guide. The staff at a newborn care unit would provide continuous supervision and support.
  • The guidelines address various aspects of attitudes, infrastructural modifications and practice that will help in establishing FPC at Special Newborn Care Units (SNCU) such as sensitization of State and District Managers on FPC, prioritization of SNCUs for initiating FPC etc.

25) Mannitol can be used as/in

  1. Medication
  2. Removing oil spills in oceans
  3. Sweetener for people with diabetes

Select the correct answer using codes below:

a) 1 and 3 Only

b) 3 Only

c) 1 Only

d) 1,2 and 3

 

Solution: d)

 

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/07/31/insights-daily-current-affairs-31-july-2017/

 

For uses, read here: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mannitol#Uses

 

Recently it is found to have applications in cleaning oil spills too.

Scientists developed the hydrophobic sorbent by using a cheap raw material (mannitol) and cellulose pulp as a matrix. (A hydrophobic material automatically becomes oil-loving and takes up oil when it comes in contact with it). Mannitol was converted into a hydrophobic gelator through a one-step process and a solution was made using this compound. Cellulose balls the size of marbles were then dipped in the solution and dried.