FREE IAS ONLINE MOCK TEST – 1
25 July 2016
Questions Based on This UPDATE
This is a Full Length Mock Test (No 25) of Insights Test Series 2016. This online mock test is posted for free for your revision purpose. Please leave behind your critical feedback. Hope you like the test.
Good Scores for this Test (After Negative marking)
152 was the highest score in this test in our Offline Class and 156 was highest in the Online test. However, majority scores were concentrated between 85 to 100.
Score Less than 85 – Intensive Revision is Very Much Needed. You can do it.
Score between 85 to 90 – You might be lurking around cut-off mark. You shouldn’t be +/- one mark near cutoff! Please revise again and again
Score 90 to 100 – Kind of Safe, but do not take rest yet. Please revise again.
Score 100 and above – You can breathe easy, but don’t watch movies yet! Less than 85 guys will soon catch up. So, please you too revise thoroughly!
Score 120 and above – You are smart and hard working. Continue to work hard.
If someone is scoring 160+, don’t panic! They must be solving this test for the second time
Above scores are rough guesses and are for this test only. Please do not compare with UPSC cutoff.
NOTE: Some minor mistakes have been corrected in this test as per Discussions Here. If you find any more mistakes, please let us know in the comment box. Thank you
PLEASE DO NOT CHEAT!
(Remember Mains GS – 4 syllabus? Want to score more there?)
Insights Prelims 2016 Revision Tests
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Question 1 of 100
1. Question
2 pointsAccording to IPCC Fifth Assessment Report there is high confidence that permafrost temperatures have increased in most regions since the early 1980s which may cause permafrost to thaw. How will the thawing of permafrost affect the earth and atmosphere?
- It can exacerbate global warming by releasing methane and other hydrocarbons that are powerful greenhouse gases.
- It can promote land erosion in mountainous regions even leading to slope failures.
Which of the above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: c)
Justification: Statement 1: World-wide, permafrost contains 1700 billion tons of organic material equaling almost half of all organic material in all soils. This pool was built up over thousands of years and is only slowly degraded under the cold conditions in the Arctic.
- Permafrost is ground that remains frozen for two or more years. Since frozen soil, including permafrost, comprises a large percentage of substrate materials other than ice, it thaws rather than melts even as any ice content melts.
- An analogy is when a freezer door is left open, although the ice in the freezer may change phase to a liquid, the food solids will not experience a phase change.
- Large quantities of methane are stored in the Arctic in natural gas deposits, permafrost, and as submarine clathrates. Permafrost and clathrates degrade on warming, thus large releases of methane from these sources may arise as a result of global warming.
Statement 2: Over the past century, an increasing number of alpine rock slope failure events in mountain ranges around the world have been recorded.
- It is expected that the high number of structural failures is due to permafrost thawing, which is thought to be linked to climate change.
- In mountain ranges, much of the structural stability can be attributed to glaciers and permafrost.
- As climate warms, permafrost thaws, which results in a less stable mountain structure, and ultimately more slope failures.
Q Source: Environment concepts
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Justification: Statement 1: World-wide, permafrost contains 1700 billion tons of organic material equaling almost half of all organic material in all soils. This pool was built up over thousands of years and is only slowly degraded under the cold conditions in the Arctic.
- Permafrost is ground that remains frozen for two or more years. Since frozen soil, including permafrost, comprises a large percentage of substrate materials other than ice, it thaws rather than melts even as any ice content melts.
- An analogy is when a freezer door is left open, although the ice in the freezer may change phase to a liquid, the food solids will not experience a phase change.
- Large quantities of methane are stored in the Arctic in natural gas deposits, permafrost, and as submarine clathrates. Permafrost and clathrates degrade on warming, thus large releases of methane from these sources may arise as a result of global warming.
Statement 2: Over the past century, an increasing number of alpine rock slope failure events in mountain ranges around the world have been recorded.
- It is expected that the high number of structural failures is due to permafrost thawing, which is thought to be linked to climate change.
- In mountain ranges, much of the structural stability can be attributed to glaciers and permafrost.
- As climate warms, permafrost thaws, which results in a less stable mountain structure, and ultimately more slope failures.
Q Source: Environment concepts
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Question 2 of 100
2. Question
2 pointsConsider the following about Vijaynagar empire.
- Religion and Kingdom related affairs were completely separated in the empire.
- The rulers adopted the title of “Hindu suratranas”.
- All royal orders were signed in Sanskrit.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
Correct
Solution: b)
Justification: Statement 1 and 2: Religion and religious classes had a vital role in the political, social and economic life of the Vijaynagar empire.
- The principle of strict adherence to dharma was the chief constituent and distinguishing feature of the Vijaynagar state.
- The kings claimed to be the representatives of a specific god and often encouraged temple building as a means of associating themselves with the divine.
- The very choice of the site of Vijaynagar as the capital city was perhaps inspired by the existence of the shrines of Virupaksha and Pampadevi.
- The Vijayanagara kings claimed to rule on behalf of the god Virupaksha. Rulers also indicated their close links with the godsby using the title “Hindu Suratrana” this meant Hindu Sultan.
Statement 3: All royal orders were signed “Shri Virupaksha”, usually in the Kannada script.
Q Source: Improvisation: UPSC IES 2014
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Justification: Statement 1 and 2: Religion and religious classes had a vital role in the political, social and economic life of the Vijaynagar empire.
- The principle of strict adherence to dharma was the chief constituent and distinguishing feature of the Vijaynagar state.
- The kings claimed to be the representatives of a specific god and often encouraged temple building as a means of associating themselves with the divine.
- The very choice of the site of Vijaynagar as the capital city was perhaps inspired by the existence of the shrines of Virupaksha and Pampadevi.
- The Vijayanagara kings claimed to rule on behalf of the god Virupaksha. Rulers also indicated their close links with the godsby using the title “Hindu Suratrana” this meant Hindu Sultan.
Statement 3: All royal orders were signed “Shri Virupaksha”, usually in the Kannada script.
Q Source: Improvisation: UPSC IES 2014
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Question 3 of 100
3. Question
2 pointsThe Indian Railways (IR) has recently embarked on a strategy to migrate from existing arrangements with many state power distribution utilities to procure electricity through open access. Open access will help railways to
Correct
Solution: a)
Justification: The Indian Railways (IR), one of the largest transportation networks in the world, consumes 17.5 billion units of energy (1.7 per cent of the country’s total electricity consumption) for which it pays about R12,300 crore to distribution companies annually.
- This amounts to more than 25 per cent of total revenue budget of IR which is the second largest component of its revenue expenditure.
- The Open Access policy under the Electricity Act, 2003, allows consumers with electricity load above 1 mw to procure power directly from markets.
- If railways procures power through open access (which is cheaper), it can reduce power costs substantially by paying progressive power tarrifs for different trains and tracks. This will help subsidize train fares running in relatively backward regions.
Q Source: Economic Survey: Chapter “Power One India”
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Justification: The Indian Railways (IR), one of the largest transportation networks in the world, consumes 17.5 billion units of energy (1.7 per cent of the country’s total electricity consumption) for which it pays about R12,300 crore to distribution companies annually.
- This amounts to more than 25 per cent of total revenue budget of IR which is the second largest component of its revenue expenditure.
- The Open Access policy under the Electricity Act, 2003, allows consumers with electricity load above 1 mw to procure power directly from markets.
- If railways procures power through open access (which is cheaper), it can reduce power costs substantially by paying progressive power tarrifs for different trains and tracks. This will help subsidize train fares running in relatively backward regions.
Q Source: Economic Survey: Chapter “Power One India”
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Question 4 of 100
4. Question
2 pointsConsider the following about the Nuclear Supplier’s group (NSG).
- It was founded in response to the Indian nuclear test in 1974.
- Its members are prohibited from exporting nuclear materials, equipment or technology to any non-member state in any circumstances.
- New members are admitted by consensus of all existing members.
- It functions as an attached office under the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA).
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
Correct
Solution: a)
Justification: Statement 1: The Indian nuclear test demonstrated that certain non-weapons specific nuclear technology could be readily turned to weapons development.
Nations already signatories of the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) saw the need to further limit the export of nuclear equipment, materials or technology and thus established NSG.
Statement 2: Listed items can be exported to non-nuclear states if certain International Atomic Energy Agency safeguards were agreed to or if exceptional circumstances relating to safety existed. For e.g. India waiver based on US-India Civil Nuclear Deal.
Statement 3: If China blocks India’s entry to NSG, India will not be able to join it despite the support of all other members.
Statement 4: It functions as an independent group from IAEA, but uses the services of IAEA.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Justification: Statement 1: The Indian nuclear test demonstrated that certain non-weapons specific nuclear technology could be readily turned to weapons development.
Nations already signatories of the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) saw the need to further limit the export of nuclear equipment, materials or technology and thus established NSG.
Statement 2: Listed items can be exported to non-nuclear states if certain International Atomic Energy Agency safeguards were agreed to or if exceptional circumstances relating to safety existed. For e.g. India waiver based on US-India Civil Nuclear Deal.
Statement 3: If China blocks India’s entry to NSG, India will not be able to join it despite the support of all other members.
Statement 4: It functions as an independent group from IAEA, but uses the services of IAEA.
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Question 5 of 100
5. Question
2 pointsConsider the following about Rajya Sabha (RS) elections.
- Model code of conduct is not applicable to these elections.
- Anti-defection law does not apply to the elections.
- Election Commission of India has no powers to countermand Rajya Sabha elections.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
Correct
Solution: a)
Justification: Statement 1: There is no model code of conduct for the RS election as the nature of the election is different. There are no public meetings, rallies, door-to-door canvassing or media campaigns.
The constituency is confined to a small electoral college consisting of MLAs. The voting is open so the party MLAs are subject to party discipline.
Statement 2: RS elections rely on party whip system and transparency induced by the open ballot voting system. But, there is no legal provision that binds the MPs must vote as per the directions of the party whip. Anti-defection law does not apply to it, and thus the experts have recommended bringing Anti-defection law to RS elections as well.
Experts have recommended that anti-defection provisions should apply in case of RS elections.
Also see, this http://eci.nic.in/eci_main1/current/PN1072012.pdf\
Statement 3: On a complaint brought by three senior political leaders about rampant horse-trading among MLAs, the EC countermanded the RS poll in Jharkhand in 2012. So, 3 is wrong.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Justification: Statement 1: There is no model code of conduct for the RS election as the nature of the election is different. There are no public meetings, rallies, door-to-door canvassing or media campaigns.
The constituency is confined to a small electoral college consisting of MLAs. The voting is open so the party MLAs are subject to party discipline.
Statement 2: RS elections rely on party whip system and transparency induced by the open ballot voting system. But, there is no legal provision that binds the MPs must vote as per the directions of the party whip. Anti-defection law does not apply to it, and thus the experts have recommended bringing Anti-defection law to RS elections as well.
Experts have recommended that anti-defection provisions should apply in case of RS elections.
Also see, this http://eci.nic.in/eci_main1/current/PN1072012.pdf\
Statement 3: On a complaint brought by three senior political leaders about rampant horse-trading among MLAs, the EC countermanded the RS poll in Jharkhand in 2012. So, 3 is wrong.
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Question 6 of 100
6. Question
2 pointsThe Hague Code of Conduct (HCOC) is a/an
Correct
Solution: d)
Learning: The HCOC is the result of international efforts to regulate access to ballistic missiles which can potentially deliver weapons of mass destruction.
The HCOC does not ban ballistic missiles, but it does call for restraint in their production, testing, and export.
India has joined the The Hague Code of Conduct against Ballistic Missile Proliferation by notifying HCoC Central Contact, Vienna, through diplomatic channels.
India’s joining the Code signals our readiness to further strengthen the global non-proliferation regimes.
Q Source: http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-joins-the-hague-code-of-conduct/article8682678.ece
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Learning: The HCOC is the result of international efforts to regulate access to ballistic missiles which can potentially deliver weapons of mass destruction.
The HCOC does not ban ballistic missiles, but it does call for restraint in their production, testing, and export.
India has joined the The Hague Code of Conduct against Ballistic Missile Proliferation by notifying HCoC Central Contact, Vienna, through diplomatic channels.
India’s joining the Code signals our readiness to further strengthen the global non-proliferation regimes.
Q Source: http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-joins-the-hague-code-of-conduct/article8682678.ece
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Question 7 of 100
7. Question
2 pointsThe Pushti marg is a Vaishnav sect founded by Vallabhacharya. It is based on the philosophy of
Correct
Solution: c)
Learning: It is based on the Vedant philosophy of “Ekmevadwitiyam Brahm” (the ultimate truth is one & only one Brahm) and “Sarvam Khalu Idam Brahm” (whatever is there, is Brahm).
- Ved, Brahma-sutras, Bhagwad Geeta and Shrimad Bhagawat are the four fundamental scriptures.
- The path to be followed to attain the ultimate blissfulness based on this principle is called as Pushtimarg.
- The same Bhagawan is to be lovingly serviced in the form of Deity as Shri Krishna who is “Sachchidanand Purushottam Parambrahm”.
- It (Pushtimarg) is spontaneous, selfless and motiveless love for Shri Krishna.
Q Source: Improvisation: UPSC CSP 2014
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Learning: It is based on the Vedant philosophy of “Ekmevadwitiyam Brahm” (the ultimate truth is one & only one Brahm) and “Sarvam Khalu Idam Brahm” (whatever is there, is Brahm).
- Ved, Brahma-sutras, Bhagwad Geeta and Shrimad Bhagawat are the four fundamental scriptures.
- The path to be followed to attain the ultimate blissfulness based on this principle is called as Pushtimarg.
- The same Bhagawan is to be lovingly serviced in the form of Deity as Shri Krishna who is “Sachchidanand Purushottam Parambrahm”.
- It (Pushtimarg) is spontaneous, selfless and motiveless love for Shri Krishna.
Q Source: Improvisation: UPSC CSP 2014
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Question 8 of 100
8. Question
2 pointsThe Government has recently amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act 1957 in 2015 for promoting the mining sector. Which of the following is/are the salient features of the MMDR Act 2015?
- The grant of mineral concessions will be through auction by competitive bidding.
- A District Mineral Foundation is to be established in each mining affected district.
- Mineral concessions granted by the government will be non- transferrable between parties to reduce corruption and boost FDI in this sector.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
Correct
Solution: a)
Justification: Statement 1: It will be a transparent and non-discriminatory method and which will also obtain for the state government its fair share of value of the mineral resources.
Statement 2: The mineral foundation would invest in the welfare of the district.
Statement 3: It provides for assured tenure and easy transferability of mineral concessions granted through auction to attract private investments and FDI, and Transition provisions for extension of existing leases to obviate disruptions in supply of ore and to ensure regular supply of raw material to industry.
Q Source: Economic Survey 2015-16: Chapter “Industrial, Corporate, and Infrastructure Performance– Vol II”
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Justification: Statement 1: It will be a transparent and non-discriminatory method and which will also obtain for the state government its fair share of value of the mineral resources.
Statement 2: The mineral foundation would invest in the welfare of the district.
Statement 3: It provides for assured tenure and easy transferability of mineral concessions granted through auction to attract private investments and FDI, and Transition provisions for extension of existing leases to obviate disruptions in supply of ore and to ensure regular supply of raw material to industry.
Q Source: Economic Survey 2015-16: Chapter “Industrial, Corporate, and Infrastructure Performance– Vol II”
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Question 9 of 100
9. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements.
Assertion (A): A person not born in India but having acquired citizenship by registration or by naturalisation cannot become the President of India.
Reason (R): President of India is the head of the state and represents the Indian state symbolically.
In the context of the above, which of these is correct?
Correct
Solution: d)
Justification: The Indian constitution does not differentiate on the basis of the method of acquiring of citizenship when it comes to fighting for public office.
Naturalised and registered citizens can contest for the post of both PM and President.
Sonia Gandhi would be an appropriate example of the above who contested for the PM post.
Q Source: Indian Polity: M Lamikanth
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Justification: The Indian constitution does not differentiate on the basis of the method of acquiring of citizenship when it comes to fighting for public office.
Naturalised and registered citizens can contest for the post of both PM and President.
Sonia Gandhi would be an appropriate example of the above who contested for the PM post.
Q Source: Indian Polity: M Lamikanth
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Question 10 of 100
10. Question
2 pointsConsider the following about the recently launched Pradhan Mantri Fasal Beema Yojana (PMFBY).
- It covers both food and commercial crops.
- Both Centre and states will bear the financial burden of the scheme.
- It will act as a supplement of the existing Modified National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (MNAIS).
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
Correct
Solution: a)
Justification: Statement 1: It covers rabi, kharif, commercial and horticultural crops.
Statement 2: There will be a uniform premium of only 2% to be paid by farmers for all Kharif crops and 1.5% for all Rabi crops. The government liability on premium subsidy will be shared equally by the Centre and states.
Statement 3: It will replace two schemes National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (NAIS) and the modified NAIS (MNAIS).
Learning: Schemes targets to cover half of India’s cropped area in the next three years. Present coverage is 23% approximately.
The new scheme will also seek to address a long-standing demand of farmers and provide farm-level assessment for localized calamities, including hailstorms, unseasonal rains, landslides and inundation.
Q Source: January current affairs: http://www.pmindia.gov.in/en/news_updates/nda-govt-launches-new-crop-insurance-scheme-minimum-premium-maximum-insurance-for-farmers/
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Justification: Statement 1: It covers rabi, kharif, commercial and horticultural crops.
Statement 2: There will be a uniform premium of only 2% to be paid by farmers for all Kharif crops and 1.5% for all Rabi crops. The government liability on premium subsidy will be shared equally by the Centre and states.
Statement 3: It will replace two schemes National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (NAIS) and the modified NAIS (MNAIS).
Learning: Schemes targets to cover half of India’s cropped area in the next three years. Present coverage is 23% approximately.
The new scheme will also seek to address a long-standing demand of farmers and provide farm-level assessment for localized calamities, including hailstorms, unseasonal rains, landslides and inundation.
Q Source: January current affairs: http://www.pmindia.gov.in/en/news_updates/nda-govt-launches-new-crop-insurance-scheme-minimum-premium-maximum-insurance-for-farmers/
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Question 11 of 100
11. Question
2 pointsThe three-member Lodha panel submitted its report on the functioning of the BCCI to the Supreme Court in January 2016. Which of these is NOT a recommendation made by the Lodha panel?
Correct
Solution: a)
Justification: Option (a) and (b): No such recommendation was made however recognizing the public functions of the board, the Lodha panel recommended brining it under RTI.
Option (c): The committee also recommended legalizing betting with strong safeguards with reservations for players and team officials.
Option (d): The formula would mean only cricketing bodies representing a state would have full membership and voting rights in the BCCI.
Q Source: January current affairs: http://www.livemint.com/Politics/zGN8WzUBvFYq8IGzA9nMxO/One-state-one-vote-policy-violates-right-to-form-associat.html
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Justification: Option (a) and (b): No such recommendation was made however recognizing the public functions of the board, the Lodha panel recommended brining it under RTI.
Option (c): The committee also recommended legalizing betting with strong safeguards with reservations for players and team officials.
Option (d): The formula would mean only cricketing bodies representing a state would have full membership and voting rights in the BCCI.
Q Source: January current affairs: http://www.livemint.com/Politics/zGN8WzUBvFYq8IGzA9nMxO/One-state-one-vote-policy-violates-right-to-form-associat.html
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Question 12 of 100
12. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following ministries/department run programmes/schemes/projects that have a bearing on land degradation in India?
- Ministry of Rural Development
- Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
- Ministry of Water Resources
- Ministry of Tribal Affairs
- Department of Space
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
Correct
Solution: d)
Justification: Statement 1: Watershed development programmes, land reforms, maintaining fertility of agricultural fields etc.
Statement 2: UN Convention to Combat Desertification; assisting in watershed development, protecting forest land, compensatory afforestation policy etc.
Statement 3: Multi-purpose projects, irrigation projects, river inter-linking projects etc have a bearing on land degradation.
Statement 4: Helps in integrated development of tribal land, safeguards forests and biodiversity via implementation of tribal welfare schemes, protecting forest rights etc.
Statement 5: Remote sensing projects that monitor land degradation, deforestation, water logged areas, mineral exploration degraded areas etc.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Justification: Statement 1: Watershed development programmes, land reforms, maintaining fertility of agricultural fields etc.
Statement 2: UN Convention to Combat Desertification; assisting in watershed development, protecting forest land, compensatory afforestation policy etc.
Statement 3: Multi-purpose projects, irrigation projects, river inter-linking projects etc have a bearing on land degradation.
Statement 4: Helps in integrated development of tribal land, safeguards forests and biodiversity via implementation of tribal welfare schemes, protecting forest rights etc.
Statement 5: Remote sensing projects that monitor land degradation, deforestation, water logged areas, mineral exploration degraded areas etc.
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Question 13 of 100
13. Question
2 pointsCold currents bring cold water into warm water areas. These currents are usually found on the
- West coast of the continents in the low and middle latitudes in both hemispheres
- East coasts in the higher latitudes in the Northern Hemisphere
Which of the above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: c)
Justification: Ocean currents can also be classified based on temperature : as cold currents and warm currents:
(i) Cold currents are usually found on the west coast of the continents in the low and middle latitudes (true in both hemispheres) and on the east coast in the higher latitudes in the Northern Hemisphere.
(ii) Warm currents bring warm water into cold water areas and are usually observed on the east coast of continents in the low and middle latitudes (true in both hemispheres). In the northern hemisphere they are found on the west coasts of continents in high latitude.
Q Source: 11th NCERT: Fundamentals of Physical Geography
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Justification: Ocean currents can also be classified based on temperature : as cold currents and warm currents:
(i) Cold currents are usually found on the west coast of the continents in the low and middle latitudes (true in both hemispheres) and on the east coast in the higher latitudes in the Northern Hemisphere.
(ii) Warm currents bring warm water into cold water areas and are usually observed on the east coast of continents in the low and middle latitudes (true in both hemispheres). In the northern hemisphere they are found on the west coasts of continents in high latitude.
Q Source: 11th NCERT: Fundamentals of Physical Geography
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Question 14 of 100
14. Question
2 pointsNo one can be compelled to sing the National Anthem because
- It will be against the Right to freedom of speech and expression.
- There is no legal provision that obliges anyone to sing the National Anthem.
Which of the above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: c)
Justification: In 1987, a two-judge Bench of the SC ordered a school in Kerala to take back three children who had been expelled for not singing the National Anthem, although they stood during the Anthem.
The children desisted from singing because of their conviction that their religion did not permit them to join any rituals except in their prayers to Jehovah, their God.
- The court ruled that there is no legal provision that obliges anyone to sing the National Anthem, and it is not disrespectful to the Anthem if a person who stands up respectfully when it is being sung does not join in the singing.
- The court, however, did not deal with the issue of whether it would be disrespectful if a person chose not to stand during the National Anthem. The judgment ended with the message: “Our tradition teaches tolerance; our philosophy preaches tolerance; our Constitution practises tolerance; let us not dilute it.”
Also, please read this http://expressindia.indianexpress.com/news/fullstory.php?newsid=41592
Q Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Prevention_of_Insults_to_National_Honour_Act,_1971#National_anthem
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Justification: In 1987, a two-judge Bench of the SC ordered a school in Kerala to take back three children who had been expelled for not singing the National Anthem, although they stood during the Anthem.
The children desisted from singing because of their conviction that their religion did not permit them to join any rituals except in their prayers to Jehovah, their God.
- The court ruled that there is no legal provision that obliges anyone to sing the National Anthem, and it is not disrespectful to the Anthem if a person who stands up respectfully when it is being sung does not join in the singing.
- The court, however, did not deal with the issue of whether it would be disrespectful if a person chose not to stand during the National Anthem. The judgment ended with the message: “Our tradition teaches tolerance; our philosophy preaches tolerance; our Constitution practises tolerance; let us not dilute it.”
Also, please read this http://expressindia.indianexpress.com/news/fullstory.php?newsid=41592
Q Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Prevention_of_Insults_to_National_Honour_Act,_1971#National_anthem
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Question 15 of 100
15. Question
2 pointsThe US had recently filed a complaint in the WTO against India’s domestic content requirement (DCR) under the country’s National Solar Mission (NSM). What do you understand by DCR in this context?
Correct
Solution: d)
Learning: India lost this case against the United States as the World Trade Organization (WTO) ruled that domestic content requirements (DCR) in India’s solar power development programme conflict with international rules of imports.
- The US trade complaint in 2013 alleged that the Jawaharlal Nehru National Solar Mission subsidies were available only if developers used equipment produced in India.
- National treatment of any investment whether domestic or foreign is a key WTO principle, thus violating a key global trade rule.
- The government had offered financial support of up to Rs.1 crore per MW to the implementing agency for setting up large solar capacities by placing orders with domestic manufacturers. It also had domestic content deployment requirements for a certain part of government’s solar power requirements.
Q Source: 2015 current affairs: http://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/wto-rules-against-india-s-domestic-content-requirements-in-solar-power-50977
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Learning: India lost this case against the United States as the World Trade Organization (WTO) ruled that domestic content requirements (DCR) in India’s solar power development programme conflict with international rules of imports.
- The US trade complaint in 2013 alleged that the Jawaharlal Nehru National Solar Mission subsidies were available only if developers used equipment produced in India.
- National treatment of any investment whether domestic or foreign is a key WTO principle, thus violating a key global trade rule.
- The government had offered financial support of up to Rs.1 crore per MW to the implementing agency for setting up large solar capacities by placing orders with domestic manufacturers. It also had domestic content deployment requirements for a certain part of government’s solar power requirements.
Q Source: 2015 current affairs: http://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/wto-rules-against-india-s-domestic-content-requirements-in-solar-power-50977
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Question 16 of 100
16. Question
2 pointsRipon’s resolution of 1882 was a landmark official statement in British India. It is related to
Correct
Solution: a)
Learning: The development of local self government in India owes their progress to the sincere efforts of Lord Ripon in this direction. His most significant contribution was in the field of local self-Government.
- He passed a resolution in 1881 which clearly stated that the time had come when further steps could be taken to develop the system of Local self-Government.
- The said resolution directed the provincial Government to transfer considerable revenue to local bodies that were to deal with matters of local importance. The next step in this direction was taken by him when he passed the famous Resolution of 1882.
- It was made quite clear in this resolution that the expansion of the system of local self-Government was not to improve the efficiency of the administration. It is chiefly desirable as an instrument of political and popular education.
Q Source: Old NCERT: Modern History: Bipin Chandra
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Learning: The development of local self government in India owes their progress to the sincere efforts of Lord Ripon in this direction. His most significant contribution was in the field of local self-Government.
- He passed a resolution in 1881 which clearly stated that the time had come when further steps could be taken to develop the system of Local self-Government.
- The said resolution directed the provincial Government to transfer considerable revenue to local bodies that were to deal with matters of local importance. The next step in this direction was taken by him when he passed the famous Resolution of 1882.
- It was made quite clear in this resolution that the expansion of the system of local self-Government was not to improve the efficiency of the administration. It is chiefly desirable as an instrument of political and popular education.
Q Source: Old NCERT: Modern History: Bipin Chandra
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Question 17 of 100
17. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following is NOT one of the monitorable targets under the Beti Bachao Beti Padhao scheme?
Correct
Solution: b)
Learning: The following are the other monitorable targets:
- Reduce Gender differentials in Under Five Child Mortality Rate from 8 points in 2011 to 4 points by 2017.
- Improve the Nutrition status of girls – by reducing number of underweight and anaemic girls under 5 years of age (from NFHS 3 levels).
- Ensure universalization of ICDS, girls‟ attendance and equal care monitored, using joint ICDS NRHM Mother Child Protection Cards.
- Increase the girl’s enrolment in secondary education from 76% in 2013-14 to 79% by 2017.
- Provide girl’s toilet in every school in 100 CSR districts by 2017.
- Train Elected Representatives/ Grassroot functionaries as Community Champions to mobilize communities to improve CSR & promote Girl’s education.
Q Source: http://wcd.nic.in/schemes-listing/2405
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Learning: The following are the other monitorable targets:
- Reduce Gender differentials in Under Five Child Mortality Rate from 8 points in 2011 to 4 points by 2017.
- Improve the Nutrition status of girls – by reducing number of underweight and anaemic girls under 5 years of age (from NFHS 3 levels).
- Ensure universalization of ICDS, girls‟ attendance and equal care monitored, using joint ICDS NRHM Mother Child Protection Cards.
- Increase the girl’s enrolment in secondary education from 76% in 2013-14 to 79% by 2017.
- Provide girl’s toilet in every school in 100 CSR districts by 2017.
- Train Elected Representatives/ Grassroot functionaries as Community Champions to mobilize communities to improve CSR & promote Girl’s education.
Q Source: http://wcd.nic.in/schemes-listing/2405
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Question 18 of 100
18. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements.
- The same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more states at the same time.
- In case a Governor is appointed the administrator of a Union Territory (UT), he alone has the right to appoint the Chief Minister of the UT.
Which of the above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: d)
Justification: Statement 1: The Governor can be made to bear the responsibilities of more than two or more states or Union territories at the same time. There is no legal or constitutional limitation on this.
Statement 2: It is the President that appoints the CM, whether the Governor serves as the administrator, or the administrator has been appointed separately by the Central government.
Q Source: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Justification: Statement 1: The Governor can be made to bear the responsibilities of more than two or more states or Union territories at the same time. There is no legal or constitutional limitation on this.
Statement 2: It is the President that appoints the CM, whether the Governor serves as the administrator, or the administrator has been appointed separately by the Central government.
Q Source: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
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Question 19 of 100
19. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following organizations has won the National Award on e-Governance 2015-16?
Correct
Solution: d)
Justification: The EPFO won the gold award in the ‘innovative use of technology in e-governance’ category for launching the Universal Account Number (UAN).
Through UAN, active employees are provided a universal number which can be linked to various provident fund account numbers provided to them while working in different organizations.
Learning: The Employees’ Provident Fund Organization is a statutory body, is one of the largest social security organizations in India in terms of volume of financial transactions undertaken and number of covered beneficiaries.
It works under the overall aegis of the Ministry of Labor and Employment.
Q Source: January current affairs: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=141117
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Justification: The EPFO won the gold award in the ‘innovative use of technology in e-governance’ category for launching the Universal Account Number (UAN).
Through UAN, active employees are provided a universal number which can be linked to various provident fund account numbers provided to them while working in different organizations.
Learning: The Employees’ Provident Fund Organization is a statutory body, is one of the largest social security organizations in India in terms of volume of financial transactions undertaken and number of covered beneficiaries.
It works under the overall aegis of the Ministry of Labor and Employment.
Q Source: January current affairs: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=141117
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Question 20 of 100
20. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements about National Green Corps (NGC).
- It is an attached agency under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MOEFCC) dedicated to conservation of wildlife in India.
- It represents India at the summits of The International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN).
Which of the above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: d)
Justification & Learning: Both statements are wrong.
National Green Corps is a major initiative of MOEFCC for creating environmental awareness launched in 2001-02 which aims at building cadres of young children working towards environmental conservation and sustainable development. It is not an attached agency of the Ministry.
- The MoEF partners with the state Government agencies alongwith the dedicated NGOs, working in the field of Environmental Education.
- It is operated through Eco-clubs set up in schools registered as members of NGC exposing school children to in-depth field experiences.
- It has led to a network of more than 1,00,000 Eco clubs across the country in 14 years, making it one of the largest conservation networks indicates its importance at grass root level in taking the environment awareness at mass.
Q Source: http://www.moef.nic.in/division/national-green-corps-ngc
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Justification & Learning: Both statements are wrong.
National Green Corps is a major initiative of MOEFCC for creating environmental awareness launched in 2001-02 which aims at building cadres of young children working towards environmental conservation and sustainable development. It is not an attached agency of the Ministry.
- The MoEF partners with the state Government agencies alongwith the dedicated NGOs, working in the field of Environmental Education.
- It is operated through Eco-clubs set up in schools registered as members of NGC exposing school children to in-depth field experiences.
- It has led to a network of more than 1,00,000 Eco clubs across the country in 14 years, making it one of the largest conservation networks indicates its importance at grass root level in taking the environment awareness at mass.
Q Source: http://www.moef.nic.in/division/national-green-corps-ngc
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Question 21 of 100
21. Question
2 points“Fracking technology” that occurs frequently in news is related to
Correct
Solution: b)
Learning: Hydraulic fracturing, or “fracking”, is the process of drilling and injecting fluid into the ground at a high pressure in order to fracture shale rocks to release natural gas inside.
- It takes 1-8 million gallons of water to complete each fracturing job.
- Up to 600 chemicals are used in fracking fluid, including known carcinogens and toxins.
- The mixture reaches the end of the well where the high pressure causes the nearby shale rock to crack, creating fissures where natural gas flows into the well.
- During this process, methane gas and toxic chemicals leach out from the system and contaminate nearby groundwater.
- Methane concentrations are higher in drinking-water wells near fracturing sites than in normal wells.
Q Source: http://www.bbc.com/news/uk-14432401
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Learning: Hydraulic fracturing, or “fracking”, is the process of drilling and injecting fluid into the ground at a high pressure in order to fracture shale rocks to release natural gas inside.
- It takes 1-8 million gallons of water to complete each fracturing job.
- Up to 600 chemicals are used in fracking fluid, including known carcinogens and toxins.
- The mixture reaches the end of the well where the high pressure causes the nearby shale rock to crack, creating fissures where natural gas flows into the well.
- During this process, methane gas and toxic chemicals leach out from the system and contaminate nearby groundwater.
- Methane concentrations are higher in drinking-water wells near fracturing sites than in normal wells.
Q Source: http://www.bbc.com/news/uk-14432401
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Question 22 of 100
22. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following is/are designated Ramsar sites in India?
- Wular lake
- Chilka lake
- Ashtamudi wetland
- Loktak lake
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
Correct
Solution: d)
Learning: The Ramsar Convention has several mechanisms to help Contracting Parties designate their most significant wetlands as Ramsar Sites, and to take the steps necessary to manage them effectively, maintaining their ecological character.
- Ramsar Sites are designated because they meet the Criteria for identifying Wetlands of International Importance.
- The first criterion refers to Sites containing representative, rare or unique wetland types, and the other eight cover Sites of international importance for conserving biological diversity.
- These criteria emphasize the importance the Convention places on sustaining biodiversity.
This is a list of all Ramsar sites in India.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Ramsar_sites_in_India
Q Source: Improvisation: UPSC past year papers
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Learning: The Ramsar Convention has several mechanisms to help Contracting Parties designate their most significant wetlands as Ramsar Sites, and to take the steps necessary to manage them effectively, maintaining their ecological character.
- Ramsar Sites are designated because they meet the Criteria for identifying Wetlands of International Importance.
- The first criterion refers to Sites containing representative, rare or unique wetland types, and the other eight cover Sites of international importance for conserving biological diversity.
- These criteria emphasize the importance the Convention places on sustaining biodiversity.
This is a list of all Ramsar sites in India.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Ramsar_sites_in_India
Q Source: Improvisation: UPSC past year papers
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Question 23 of 100
23. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements about the Champaran Satyagraha 1917.
- It was Gandhiji’s first Satyagraha in India.
- It was launched against the oppressive policies of European indigo planters.
Which of the above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: c)
Justification: The oppressive policies European indigo planters led to exploitation of tens of thousands of landless serfs, indentured labourers and poor farmers in Champaran and neighbouring areas.
The peasants (bhumihars) of the Champaran and other areas of North Bihar were growing the Indigo under the tinakathia system.
he price was too less and was fixed on the area cultivated rather than the crop produced. They were actually being cheated by the English planters.
Champaran and Kheda Satyagraha were the events which later put Gandhi on the front seat of Indian National Revolution and made Satyagraha a powerful tool.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Justification: The oppressive policies European indigo planters led to exploitation of tens of thousands of landless serfs, indentured labourers and poor farmers in Champaran and neighbouring areas.
The peasants (bhumihars) of the Champaran and other areas of North Bihar were growing the Indigo under the tinakathia system.
he price was too less and was fixed on the area cultivated rather than the crop produced. They were actually being cheated by the English planters.
Champaran and Kheda Satyagraha were the events which later put Gandhi on the front seat of Indian National Revolution and made Satyagraha a powerful tool.
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Question 24 of 100
24. Question
2 pointsBlockchain technology that has been in news for some time is related to
Correct
Solution: a)
Learning: To first understand bitcoins in the simplest way, see http://www.coindesk.com/bitcoin-explained-five-year-old/
The blockchain is seen as the main technological innovation of Bitcoin, since it stands as proof of all the transactions on the network.
A block is the ‘current’ part of a blockchain which records some or all of the recent transactions, and once completed goes into the blockchain as permanent database. Each time a block gets completed, a new block is generated.
You can also see this https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=oSP-taqLWPQ
Q Source: http://www.wsj.com/articles/bank-of-canada-explores-blockchain-technology-1466107171
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Learning: To first understand bitcoins in the simplest way, see http://www.coindesk.com/bitcoin-explained-five-year-old/
The blockchain is seen as the main technological innovation of Bitcoin, since it stands as proof of all the transactions on the network.
A block is the ‘current’ part of a blockchain which records some or all of the recent transactions, and once completed goes into the blockchain as permanent database. Each time a block gets completed, a new block is generated.
You can also see this https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=oSP-taqLWPQ
Q Source: http://www.wsj.com/articles/bank-of-canada-explores-blockchain-technology-1466107171
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Question 25 of 100
25. Question
2 pointsConsider the following about World Heritage Convention.
- India is a member of the convention.
- The convention has a bearing on the protection of wildlife.
Which of the above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: c)
Justification: India is a member of World Heritage Convention responsible for listing of World Heritage Sites, which include both Cultural and natural sites.
The World Heritage Convention is a Convention under the aegis of the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO). Wild Life wing of the Ministry of Environment and Forests is associated with the conservation of the Natural World Heritage sites.
Currently, these natural and mixed World Heritage Sites have been recognized by UNESCO in India, viz., Nanda Devi National Park, Kaziranga National Park, Manas National Park, Keoladeo National Park, Sundarbans National Park, Great Himalayan National Park, Khangchendzonga National Park (2016).
Apart from these, the Valley of Flowers National Park has also been included in the list of World Heritage Sites as an extension of Nanda Devi National Park.
Q Source: http://www.moef.nic.in/division/international-conventions
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Justification: India is a member of World Heritage Convention responsible for listing of World Heritage Sites, which include both Cultural and natural sites.
The World Heritage Convention is a Convention under the aegis of the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO). Wild Life wing of the Ministry of Environment and Forests is associated with the conservation of the Natural World Heritage sites.
Currently, these natural and mixed World Heritage Sites have been recognized by UNESCO in India, viz., Nanda Devi National Park, Kaziranga National Park, Manas National Park, Keoladeo National Park, Sundarbans National Park, Great Himalayan National Park, Khangchendzonga National Park (2016).
Apart from these, the Valley of Flowers National Park has also been included in the list of World Heritage Sites as an extension of Nanda Devi National Park.
Q Source: http://www.moef.nic.in/division/international-conventions
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Question 26 of 100
26. Question
2 pointsSpartly and Paracel islands often in news are located in
Correct
Solution: d)
Learning: Islands in the South China Sea includes the South China Sea Islands (Spratly Islands, Pratas Islands, Paracel Islands and Macclesfield Bank), islands on the China coast, on the Vietnam coast, on the Borneo coast, and the peripheral islands of Taiwan, the Philippines, etc.
South China Sea is a disputed region by China and some South-east Asian nations.
India asserts that all States should avoid “unilateral action” in the South China Sea that will lead to tensions in the region while reacting to China’s military build-up to assert dominance in the international waters.
India has repeatedly stressed for respect for freedom of navigation in international waters, the right of passage and over-flight, unimpeded commerce and access to resources in accordance with the 1982 U.N. Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS).
Q Source: World map based questions
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Learning: Islands in the South China Sea includes the South China Sea Islands (Spratly Islands, Pratas Islands, Paracel Islands and Macclesfield Bank), islands on the China coast, on the Vietnam coast, on the Borneo coast, and the peripheral islands of Taiwan, the Philippines, etc.
South China Sea is a disputed region by China and some South-east Asian nations.
India asserts that all States should avoid “unilateral action” in the South China Sea that will lead to tensions in the region while reacting to China’s military build-up to assert dominance in the international waters.
India has repeatedly stressed for respect for freedom of navigation in international waters, the right of passage and over-flight, unimpeded commerce and access to resources in accordance with the 1982 U.N. Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS).
Q Source: World map based questions
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Question 27 of 100
27. Question
2 pointsConsider the following about some of the protected areas.
- The Wild Ass Sanctuary is India’s biggest wildlife sanctuary and located in Little Rann of Kutch.
- Neora valley national park borders Sikkim and Bhutan at its highest point.
- Desert national park is located in the Thar Desert and hosts populations of blackbuck and the Great Indian Bustard.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
Correct
Solution: d)
Justification: Statement 1: The wildlife sanctuary was established in 1972 and came under the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. The sanctuary is one of the last places on earth where the endangered wild ass sub-species Indian Wild Ass can be spotted.
Statement 2: Located in Darjeeling, much of the park is still inaccessible, making it an adventurous place for the nature lovers/trekkers who can take the challenge to explore the still-unknown terrain in the Kalimpong hills.
Virgin natural forests, dense bamboo groves, colourful canopy of Rhododendron trees, lush green valley, meandering rivers and streams with snowcapped mountains in the backdrop form a picturesque landscape.
It is the land of the red panda. The park reaches up to an elevation of 10600 ft at Rachela Danda the highest point of Neora Valley National Park, which borders Sikkim and Bhutan.
Statement 3: The Desert National Park is an excellent example of the ecosystem of the Thar Desert. Sand dunes form around 20% of the Park. The Desert National Park has a collection of fossils of animals and plants of 180 million years old.
The blackbuck is a common antelope of this region. The greatest attraction of the park is a bird called the great Indian bustard, an endangered species found only in India.
Q Source: http://www.moef.nic.in/division/international-conventions
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Justification: Statement 1: The wildlife sanctuary was established in 1972 and came under the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. The sanctuary is one of the last places on earth where the endangered wild ass sub-species Indian Wild Ass can be spotted.
Statement 2: Located in Darjeeling, much of the park is still inaccessible, making it an adventurous place for the nature lovers/trekkers who can take the challenge to explore the still-unknown terrain in the Kalimpong hills.
Virgin natural forests, dense bamboo groves, colourful canopy of Rhododendron trees, lush green valley, meandering rivers and streams with snowcapped mountains in the backdrop form a picturesque landscape.
It is the land of the red panda. The park reaches up to an elevation of 10600 ft at Rachela Danda the highest point of Neora Valley National Park, which borders Sikkim and Bhutan.
Statement 3: The Desert National Park is an excellent example of the ecosystem of the Thar Desert. Sand dunes form around 20% of the Park. The Desert National Park has a collection of fossils of animals and plants of 180 million years old.
The blackbuck is a common antelope of this region. The greatest attraction of the park is a bird called the great Indian bustard, an endangered species found only in India.
Q Source: http://www.moef.nic.in/division/international-conventions
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Question 28 of 100
28. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements about Vaiseshika school of Hindu philosophy.
- The theory of atomic structure was established by this school.
- It lays emphasis on the performance of the yagya or vedic rituals to attain spiritual and worldly benefits.
- It divides the essential nature of the Universe into purush and prakriti.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
Correct
Solution: a)
Justification: Statement 1: Kannada is the founder of this school, which is associated with the Nyaya system. This school discusses seven major topics: substance, quality, action, generality, uniqueness, inherence and non-existence.
This school is called Vaisesika because it considers, uniqueness, as an aspect of reality and studies it as a separate category. Under the topic of substance, it deals with the physics and chemistry of the body and the universe.
Statement 2: This is from the Mimamnsa system of thought. The vaiseshika school emphasizes dharma, the code of conduct that leads man to worldly welfare and to the highest goal of life.
Statement 3: It is advocated by the Sankhya school.
Q Source: Schools of Hindu Philosophy topic: Ancient India
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Justification: Statement 1: Kannada is the founder of this school, which is associated with the Nyaya system. This school discusses seven major topics: substance, quality, action, generality, uniqueness, inherence and non-existence.
This school is called Vaisesika because it considers, uniqueness, as an aspect of reality and studies it as a separate category. Under the topic of substance, it deals with the physics and chemistry of the body and the universe.
Statement 2: This is from the Mimamnsa system of thought. The vaiseshika school emphasizes dharma, the code of conduct that leads man to worldly welfare and to the highest goal of life.
Statement 3: It is advocated by the Sankhya school.
Q Source: Schools of Hindu Philosophy topic: Ancient India
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Question 29 of 100
29. Question
2 pointsBlue carbon is the carbon
Correct
Solution: c)
Learning: The carbon captured by living organisms in oceans is stored in the form of biomass and sediments from mangroves, salt marshes, seagrasses and potentially algae.
Although the ocean’s vegetated habitats cover less than 0.5% of the seabed, they are responsible for more than 50%, and potentially up to 70%, of all carbon storage in ocean sediments.
Mangroves, salt marshes and seagrasses make up the majority of the ocean’s vegetated habitats but only equal 0.05% of the plant biomass on land.
One of the main concerns with Blue Carbon is the rate of loss of these important marine ecosystems is much higher than any other ecosystem on the planet, even compared to rainforests.
Q Source: Environment concepts
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Learning: The carbon captured by living organisms in oceans is stored in the form of biomass and sediments from mangroves, salt marshes, seagrasses and potentially algae.
Although the ocean’s vegetated habitats cover less than 0.5% of the seabed, they are responsible for more than 50%, and potentially up to 70%, of all carbon storage in ocean sediments.
Mangroves, salt marshes and seagrasses make up the majority of the ocean’s vegetated habitats but only equal 0.05% of the plant biomass on land.
One of the main concerns with Blue Carbon is the rate of loss of these important marine ecosystems is much higher than any other ecosystem on the planet, even compared to rainforests.
Q Source: Environment concepts
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Question 30 of 100
30. Question
2 pointsThe state with the least percentage of population below poverty line among the following is
Correct
Solution: a)
Justification: As per the Economic Survey states that have less than 10% population below poverty less are Goa, Kerala, Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Punjab, Andhra Pradesh.
J&K, Haryana, Uttarakhand, Tamil Nadu, Meghalaya, Tripura, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Nagaland, West Bengal have in between 10-20%.
Mizoram, Karnataka, Uttar Pradesh have between 20-30%.
Madhya Pradesh, Assam, Odisha, Bihar, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh have between 30-40%.
Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh have more than 40%.
Q Source: Economic Survey 2015-16: Chapter “Social Infrastructure, Employment and Human Development”
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Justification: As per the Economic Survey states that have less than 10% population below poverty less are Goa, Kerala, Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Punjab, Andhra Pradesh.
J&K, Haryana, Uttarakhand, Tamil Nadu, Meghalaya, Tripura, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Nagaland, West Bengal have in between 10-20%.
Mizoram, Karnataka, Uttar Pradesh have between 20-30%.
Madhya Pradesh, Assam, Odisha, Bihar, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh have between 30-40%.
Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh have more than 40%.
Q Source: Economic Survey 2015-16: Chapter “Social Infrastructure, Employment and Human Development”
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Question 31 of 100
31. Question
2 pointsWhat do you understand by the provision of “Compulsory Licensing” under WTO?
Correct
Solution: c)
Learning: CL is the grant of permission by the government to entities to use, manufacture, import or sell a patented invention without the patent-owner’s consent.
CL is permitted under the WTO’s TRIPS (IPR) Agreement provided conditions such as ‘national emergencies, other circumstances of extreme urgency and anticompetitive practices’ are fulfilled.
So far, India has issued only one CL for an anti-cancer medicine Nexavar.
Permitting compulsory licensing does not mean confiscating the patented technology but effecting technology transfer by paying the patent holders reasonable royalties.
Q Source: Frequently in news
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Learning: CL is the grant of permission by the government to entities to use, manufacture, import or sell a patented invention without the patent-owner’s consent.
CL is permitted under the WTO’s TRIPS (IPR) Agreement provided conditions such as ‘national emergencies, other circumstances of extreme urgency and anticompetitive practices’ are fulfilled.
So far, India has issued only one CL for an anti-cancer medicine Nexavar.
Permitting compulsory licensing does not mean confiscating the patented technology but effecting technology transfer by paying the patent holders reasonable royalties.
Q Source: Frequently in news
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Question 32 of 100
32. Question
2 pointsThe Central government has decided to revive NATGRID (National Intelligence Grid) to fight against terrorism. Consider the following about it.
- Its intelligence data is not made available to any other intelligence agencies since it reports directly to the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO).
- It will not be concerned with the cyber domain for security- related reasons.
Which of the above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: d)
Justification: Statement 1: NATGRID is the integrated intelligence grid connecting databases of core security agencies of the Government of India to collect comprehensive patterns of intelligence that can be readily accessed by the 11 intelligence agencies of India like RAW, IB etc. So, 1 is clearly wrong.
Statement 2: Social media and other platforms have become recruitment sites and propaganda machines for terrorist groups, and formal banking channels are used as much as informal ones to transact terror funding. It will be focussing on these channels too. So, 2 is wrong.
Q Source: January current affairs: http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/revive-natgrid-with-safeguards/article8054989.ece
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Justification: Statement 1: NATGRID is the integrated intelligence grid connecting databases of core security agencies of the Government of India to collect comprehensive patterns of intelligence that can be readily accessed by the 11 intelligence agencies of India like RAW, IB etc. So, 1 is clearly wrong.
Statement 2: Social media and other platforms have become recruitment sites and propaganda machines for terrorist groups, and formal banking channels are used as much as informal ones to transact terror funding. It will be focussing on these channels too. So, 2 is wrong.
Q Source: January current affairs: http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/revive-natgrid-with-safeguards/article8054989.ece
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Question 33 of 100
33. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements.
- Rummindei Pillar inscription mentions Asoka’s visit to Sarnath, the place where Gautam Buddha delivered his first sermon.
- Asoka exempted Lumbini, the birth place of Buddha, from paying tax and fixed its contribution of grain at a certain share.
Which of the above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: b)
Justification: Asoka’s seven major pillar edicts have been found places like Topra in Delhi, Meerut, Kausambi etc.
- The Minor Pillar Edicts have been found in Sanchi, Saranath, Rummindei and Nigalisagar.
- These edicts deal with Buddhist pilgrim centres, pilgrimage and solution of differences in the Buddhist religion.
- Rummindei Pillar Inscription mentions Asoka’s visit to Lumbini, the birth place of Lord Buddha. Asoka exempted Lumbini from paying tax, and fixed its contribution of grain at one-eighth.
- Nigalisagar Pillar Inscription mentions Asoka’s visit to Konakamana stupa in the fifteenth year of his rule. Schism Edict. The pillar edicts at Sarnath and Sanchi are known as Schism edicts. These edicts are addressed to dharmamahamatras.
Q Source: Improvisation: UPSC CDS 2016: http://whc.unesco.org/en/list/666
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Justification: Asoka’s seven major pillar edicts have been found places like Topra in Delhi, Meerut, Kausambi etc.
- The Minor Pillar Edicts have been found in Sanchi, Saranath, Rummindei and Nigalisagar.
- These edicts deal with Buddhist pilgrim centres, pilgrimage and solution of differences in the Buddhist religion.
- Rummindei Pillar Inscription mentions Asoka’s visit to Lumbini, the birth place of Lord Buddha. Asoka exempted Lumbini from paying tax, and fixed its contribution of grain at one-eighth.
- Nigalisagar Pillar Inscription mentions Asoka’s visit to Konakamana stupa in the fifteenth year of his rule. Schism Edict. The pillar edicts at Sarnath and Sanchi are known as Schism edicts. These edicts are addressed to dharmamahamatras.
Q Source: Improvisation: UPSC CDS 2016: http://whc.unesco.org/en/list/666
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Question 34 of 100
34. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements.
- It is the world’s newest nation formed after division from its parent state with which it had been embroiled in a state of civil war.
- It is rich in oil but is also one of the least developed economies in the world.
The above refer to?
Correct
Solution: b)
Learning: It is a landlocked country in northeastern Africa that gained its independence from Sudan in 2011.
- Following the First Sudanese Civil War, the Southern Sudan Autonomous Region was formed in 1972 and lasted until 1983.
- A second Sudanese civil war soon developed and ended with the Comprehensive Peace Agreement of 2005.
- Later that year, southern autonomy was restored when an Autonomous Government of Southern Sudan was formed.
- South Sudan thus became an independent state in July 2011, following a referendum.
The link explains the war issue well http://www.bbc.com/news/world-africa-25427965
Q Source: Current affairs of last two years
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Learning: It is a landlocked country in northeastern Africa that gained its independence from Sudan in 2011.
- Following the First Sudanese Civil War, the Southern Sudan Autonomous Region was formed in 1972 and lasted until 1983.
- A second Sudanese civil war soon developed and ended with the Comprehensive Peace Agreement of 2005.
- Later that year, southern autonomy was restored when an Autonomous Government of Southern Sudan was formed.
- South Sudan thus became an independent state in July 2011, following a referendum.
The link explains the war issue well http://www.bbc.com/news/world-africa-25427965
Q Source: Current affairs of last two years
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Question 35 of 100
35. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements.
Assertion (A): States cannot reserve by legislation more than 33% seats for women in local bodies established under the 73rd and 74th constitutional amendment.
Reason (R): The 73rd and 74th constitutional amendment put an upper ceiling of 33% on women reservations in local bodies.
In the context of the above, which of these is correct?
Correct
Solution: d)
Justification: Recent trends in India towards women reservation (also other than the ambit of the question):
- 33% in PRIs mandated by constitution at least however in some states it has been extended to 50% – e.g. Bihar, Uttarakhand, Odisha, MP. So, both A and R are wrong.
- 33% reservation bill for women in legislatures was introduced in Lok Sabha in 2008
- Gujarat government recently introduced 33% reservation for women in the police force. Bihar followed with 50% reservation for women in government jobs.
- Companies Act 2013: Woman member in the board of directors
- GoI planning to introduce 50% compulsory women reservation in local bodies.
Q Source: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Justification: Recent trends in India towards women reservation (also other than the ambit of the question):
- 33% in PRIs mandated by constitution at least however in some states it has been extended to 50% – e.g. Bihar, Uttarakhand, Odisha, MP. So, both A and R are wrong.
- 33% reservation bill for women in legislatures was introduced in Lok Sabha in 2008
- Gujarat government recently introduced 33% reservation for women in the police force. Bihar followed with 50% reservation for women in government jobs.
- Companies Act 2013: Woman member in the board of directors
- GoI planning to introduce 50% compulsory women reservation in local bodies.
Q Source: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
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Question 36 of 100
36. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements.
- The first coins to bear names and images of rulers were issued by the Indo-Greeks.
- The first gold coins were issued by the Kushanas.
- Gupta rulers did not issue gold coins and instead focussed on social welfare from utilizing the treasury wealth.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
Correct
Solution: a)
Justification & Learning: Punch-marked coins made of silver and copper (c. sixth century BCE onwards) were amongst the earliest to be minted and used by many dynasties including the Mauryas.
- The first coins to bear the names and images of rulers were issued by the Indo-Greeks, who established control over the north-western part of the subcontinent c. second century BCE.
- The first gold coins were issued in the first century CE by the Kushanas. These were virtually identical in weight with those issued by Roman emperors and the Parthian rulers of Iran.
- Coins were also issued by tribal republics of Punjab and Haryana called the Yaudheyas. Archaeologists have unearthed several thousand copper coins issued by the Yaudheyas.
- Some of the most spectacular gold coins were issued by the Gupta rulers. The earliest coins issued by Guptas were remarkable for their purity. These coins facilitated long-distance transactions from which kings also benefited.
Q Source: Chapter 2: Themes in Indian History: 12th NCERT
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Justification & Learning: Punch-marked coins made of silver and copper (c. sixth century BCE onwards) were amongst the earliest to be minted and used by many dynasties including the Mauryas.
- The first coins to bear the names and images of rulers were issued by the Indo-Greeks, who established control over the north-western part of the subcontinent c. second century BCE.
- The first gold coins were issued in the first century CE by the Kushanas. These were virtually identical in weight with those issued by Roman emperors and the Parthian rulers of Iran.
- Coins were also issued by tribal republics of Punjab and Haryana called the Yaudheyas. Archaeologists have unearthed several thousand copper coins issued by the Yaudheyas.
- Some of the most spectacular gold coins were issued by the Gupta rulers. The earliest coins issued by Guptas were remarkable for their purity. These coins facilitated long-distance transactions from which kings also benefited.
Q Source: Chapter 2: Themes in Indian History: 12th NCERT
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Question 37 of 100
37. Question
2 pointsThe amount of solar energy received at various parts of earth varies according to latitude because of the
Correct
Solution: c)
Justification: The earth is pear-shaped, however its shape has a bearing on the gravitation forces more, rather than changing the amount of solar energy received at various latitudes.
If the earth was vertically flat and not tilted, all places would have received the same solar energy.
Dominance of water bodies affects how the solar energy received is distributed, it does not change the amount of energy received per se (barring glaciers that reflect sunlight).
Q Source: 9th Geography NCERT
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Justification: The earth is pear-shaped, however its shape has a bearing on the gravitation forces more, rather than changing the amount of solar energy received at various latitudes.
If the earth was vertically flat and not tilted, all places would have received the same solar energy.
Dominance of water bodies affects how the solar energy received is distributed, it does not change the amount of energy received per se (barring glaciers that reflect sunlight).
Q Source: 9th Geography NCERT
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Question 38 of 100
38. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements.
- Leprosy is caused by a type of virus.
- As per the criteria specified in the National Health Policy, India has eliminated leprosy.
- The National Leprosy Eradication Programme (NLEP) is supported by the WHO.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
Correct
Solution: b)
Justification: Statement 1: Leprosy is a chronic infectious disease caused by Mycobacterium leprae bacteria. It usually affects the skin and peripheral nerves, but has a wide range of clinical manifestations.
Statement 2: The National Leprosy Eradication Programme is being continued with Govt. of India funds from January 2005 onwards. Additional support for the programme is continued to be received from the WHO and ILEP organizations. MDT is to be supplied free of cost as of now by NOVARTIS through WHO.
Statement 3: In the year 2001, after the global elimination was achieved, a target was reset for the remaining 14 countries to achieve elimination on national basis by December, 2005. India was one of these countries.
The National Health Policy, Govt. of India sets the goal of elimination of leprosy i.e. to reduce the no. of cases to < 1/10,000 population by the year 2005.
In 2006 prevalence Rate recorded in the country was 0.95/10,000 population.
Q Source: Improvisation: UPSC NDA 2014
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Justification: Statement 1: Leprosy is a chronic infectious disease caused by Mycobacterium leprae bacteria. It usually affects the skin and peripheral nerves, but has a wide range of clinical manifestations.
Statement 2: The National Leprosy Eradication Programme is being continued with Govt. of India funds from January 2005 onwards. Additional support for the programme is continued to be received from the WHO and ILEP organizations. MDT is to be supplied free of cost as of now by NOVARTIS through WHO.
Statement 3: In the year 2001, after the global elimination was achieved, a target was reset for the remaining 14 countries to achieve elimination on national basis by December, 2005. India was one of these countries.
The National Health Policy, Govt. of India sets the goal of elimination of leprosy i.e. to reduce the no. of cases to < 1/10,000 population by the year 2005.
In 2006 prevalence Rate recorded in the country was 0.95/10,000 population.
Q Source: Improvisation: UPSC NDA 2014
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Question 39 of 100
39. Question
2 pointsThe Progressive Writers’ Movement in the colonial era was a
Correct
Solution: d)
Learning: The Progressive Writers’ Association was established in London in 1935 by Indian writers and intellectuals, with the encouragement and support of some British literary figures.
The groups were anti-imperialistic and left-oriented, and sought to inspire people through their writings advocating equality and attacking social injustice and backwardness.
The Progressive Writers’ Association was also set up in Kolkata in 1936.
Q Source: Improvisation: UPSC NDA 2014
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Learning: The Progressive Writers’ Association was established in London in 1935 by Indian writers and intellectuals, with the encouragement and support of some British literary figures.
The groups were anti-imperialistic and left-oriented, and sought to inspire people through their writings advocating equality and attacking social injustice and backwardness.
The Progressive Writers’ Association was also set up in Kolkata in 1936.
Q Source: Improvisation: UPSC NDA 2014
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Question 40 of 100
40. Question
2 pointsConsider the following regions shown in light and dark grey in the map of India.
The regions 1 and 2 respectively correspond to which type of soils?
Correct
Solution: b)
Learning: Black soil covers most of the Deccan Plateau which includes parts of Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh and some parts of Tamil Nadu.
The laterite soils develop in areas with high temperature and high rainfall. These are the result of intense leaching due to tropical rains.
With rain, lime and silica are leached away, and soils rich in iron oxide and aluminium compound are left behind. Humus content of the soil is removed fast by bacteria that thrives well in high temperature.
Red laterite soils in Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Kerala are more suitable for tree crops like cashewnut.
Laterite soils are widely cut as bricks for use in house construction.
Q Source: 11th India Physical Geography NCERT
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Learning: Black soil covers most of the Deccan Plateau which includes parts of Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh and some parts of Tamil Nadu.
The laterite soils develop in areas with high temperature and high rainfall. These are the result of intense leaching due to tropical rains.
With rain, lime and silica are leached away, and soils rich in iron oxide and aluminium compound are left behind. Humus content of the soil is removed fast by bacteria that thrives well in high temperature.
Red laterite soils in Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Kerala are more suitable for tree crops like cashewnut.
Laterite soils are widely cut as bricks for use in house construction.
Q Source: 11th India Physical Geography NCERT
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Question 41 of 100
41. Question
2 pointsConsider the following about Wetlands International.
- It is a global not-for-profit organisation dedicated to the conservation and restoration of wetlands.
- The body was formed immediately after the Ramsar Convention.
Which of the above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: a)
Justification: Statement 1: It is an independent, not-for-profit, global organisation, supported by government and NGO membership from around the world. Based mostly in the developing world, it has many regional, national or project offices in all continents and a head office in the Netherlands.
Statement 2: Ramsar convention was held in 1971. It was founded in 1954 as the International Wildfowl Inquiry and the organisation was focused on the protection of waterbirds. Later, the name became International Waterfowl & Wetlands Research Bureau (IWRB).
Q Source: Improvisation: UPSC CSP 2014
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Justification: Statement 1: It is an independent, not-for-profit, global organisation, supported by government and NGO membership from around the world. Based mostly in the developing world, it has many regional, national or project offices in all continents and a head office in the Netherlands.
Statement 2: Ramsar convention was held in 1971. It was founded in 1954 as the International Wildfowl Inquiry and the organisation was focused on the protection of waterbirds. Later, the name became International Waterfowl & Wetlands Research Bureau (IWRB).
Q Source: Improvisation: UPSC CSP 2014
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Question 42 of 100
42. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following statements about the National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) is INCORRECT?
Correct
Solution: b)
Learning: The National Board for Wildlife is chaired by India’s Prime Minister and its vice chairman is Minister of Environment. Further, the board is mammoth body with 47-members including Parliament Members, NGOs, eminent conservationists, ecologists and environmentalists, Government secretaries of various departments, Chief of the Army Staff, Director General of Forests, tourism etc. etc.
Primary function of the Board is to promote the conservation and development of wildlife and forests. It has power to review all wildlife-related matters and approve projects in and around national parks and sanctuaries.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Learning: The National Board for Wildlife is chaired by India’s Prime Minister and its vice chairman is Minister of Environment. Further, the board is mammoth body with 47-members including Parliament Members, NGOs, eminent conservationists, ecologists and environmentalists, Government secretaries of various departments, Chief of the Army Staff, Director General of Forests, tourism etc. etc.
Primary function of the Board is to promote the conservation and development of wildlife and forests. It has power to review all wildlife-related matters and approve projects in and around national parks and sanctuaries.
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Question 43 of 100
43. Question
2 pointsEstablished in 1987, the voluntary Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR) aims to limit the spread of ballistic missiles and other unmanned delivery systems that could be used for chemical, biological, and nuclear attacks. How is India joining the Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR) significant?
- All member states must now compulsorily transfer state-of-the- art defence technology of India with immediate effect.
- India will get access to nuclear equipments and materials from member states.
Which of the above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: d)
Justification: Statement 1: India can surely benefit from the missile technology of other countries. But, please read the Statement 1 carefully.
Joining the MTCR does not make getting missile technology easier.
Statement 1 says, “All member states would agree to transfer latest missile technologies to India with safeguards.” The essence of the statement is that the membership of MTCR is not a ‘license’ to get state of the art technology from member nations, rather it only removes the restrictions on such happenings.
Statement 2: It would happen if India is admitted to NSG. MTCR does not deal with nuclear material, nor are all its members nuclear powers.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Justification: Statement 1: India can surely benefit from the missile technology of other countries. But, please read the Statement 1 carefully.
Joining the MTCR does not make getting missile technology easier.
Statement 1 says, “All member states would agree to transfer latest missile technologies to India with safeguards.” The essence of the statement is that the membership of MTCR is not a ‘license’ to get state of the art technology from member nations, rather it only removes the restrictions on such happenings.
Statement 2: It would happen if India is admitted to NSG. MTCR does not deal with nuclear material, nor are all its members nuclear powers.
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Question 44 of 100
44. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following South-east Asian nations is surrounded by sea from all sides?
- Malaysia
- Vietnam
- Thailand
- Philippines
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
Correct
Solution: c)
Justification: Malaysia is bordered by Indonesia on one side. Thailand by Laos, Vietnam etc.
Philippines is an archipelago i.e. an island country. So, the only correct answer will be C. You can see the image below.
Q Source: World map based questions
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Justification: Malaysia is bordered by Indonesia on one side. Thailand by Laos, Vietnam etc.
Philippines is an archipelago i.e. an island country. So, the only correct answer will be C. You can see the image below.
Q Source: World map based questions
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Question 45 of 100
45. Question
2 pointsAll Indian banks have to follow the compulsory target of priority sector lending (PSL). Which of the following do not fall under the PSL category?
Correct
Solution: d)
Learning: Categories under priority sector are Agriculture; Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises; Export Credit; Education; Housing; Social Infrastructure; Renewable Energy.
It also includes Self Help Groups (SHGs), agro-processing, small and marginal farmers, artisans, distressed urban poor and indebted non-institutional debtors besides the SCs, STs and other weaker sections of society like minorities.
You can all categories here https://www.rbi.org.in/Scripts/NotificationUser.aspx?Id=9688&Mode=0
Q Source: Indian Economy: Ramesh Singh
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Learning: Categories under priority sector are Agriculture; Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises; Export Credit; Education; Housing; Social Infrastructure; Renewable Energy.
It also includes Self Help Groups (SHGs), agro-processing, small and marginal farmers, artisans, distressed urban poor and indebted non-institutional debtors besides the SCs, STs and other weaker sections of society like minorities.
You can all categories here https://www.rbi.org.in/Scripts/NotificationUser.aspx?Id=9688&Mode=0
Q Source: Indian Economy: Ramesh Singh
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Question 46 of 100
46. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following bodies is/are presided by non-members?
- Rajya Sabha
- Vidhan Sabha
- Vidhan Parishad
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
Correct
Solution: b)
Justification: The presiding officers of Vidhan Parishad are generally known as Chairman and Deputy Chairman. They are elected (from amongst the members of the house) and hold their offices like the presiding officers of Vidhan Sabha.
Chairman of Rajya Sabha is Vice-President of India, who is not a member of the Parliament.
Q Source: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Justification: The presiding officers of Vidhan Parishad are generally known as Chairman and Deputy Chairman. They are elected (from amongst the members of the house) and hold their offices like the presiding officers of Vidhan Sabha.
Chairman of Rajya Sabha is Vice-President of India, who is not a member of the Parliament.
Q Source: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
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Question 47 of 100
47. Question
2 pointsApart from India, the Tropic of Cancer passes through which of the following countries?
- Mexico
- Egypt
- Bangladesh
- Qatar
- Saudi Arabia
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
Correct
Solution: d)
Learning: We strongly suggest you to go through a list of the following.
- Countries passed by equator and tropic of Capricorn
- States and cities in India passed by tropic of Cancer
Tropic of cancer ( North America , Africa and Asia , including Atlantic Ocean , Pacific Ocean , Indian Ocean and Red sea) , passes through the following major countries : Mexico , Bhamas , Libya , Algeria , Egypt , Saudi Arab , India , Bangladesh, Myanmar , China , Taiwan .
Tropic Of Capricorn passes through following major countries : Chile , Argentina , Paraguay , Brazil , Botswana , Madagascar and Australia.
The equator passes through 13 countries: Ecuador, Colombia, Brazil, Sao Tome & Principe, Gabon, Republic of the Congo, Democratic Republic of the Congo, Uganda, Kenya, Somalia, Maldives, Indonesia and Kiribati.
List of states through which Tropic of Cancer Passes in India: Mizoram; Tripura; West Bengal; Jharkhand; Chattisgarh; Madhya Pradesh; Rajasthan; Gujarat.
Q Source: World map based questions
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Learning: We strongly suggest you to go through a list of the following.
- Countries passed by equator and tropic of Capricorn
- States and cities in India passed by tropic of Cancer
Tropic of cancer ( North America , Africa and Asia , including Atlantic Ocean , Pacific Ocean , Indian Ocean and Red sea) , passes through the following major countries : Mexico , Bhamas , Libya , Algeria , Egypt , Saudi Arab , India , Bangladesh, Myanmar , China , Taiwan .
Tropic Of Capricorn passes through following major countries : Chile , Argentina , Paraguay , Brazil , Botswana , Madagascar and Australia.
The equator passes through 13 countries: Ecuador, Colombia, Brazil, Sao Tome & Principe, Gabon, Republic of the Congo, Democratic Republic of the Congo, Uganda, Kenya, Somalia, Maldives, Indonesia and Kiribati.
List of states through which Tropic of Cancer Passes in India: Mizoram; Tripura; West Bengal; Jharkhand; Chattisgarh; Madhya Pradesh; Rajasthan; Gujarat.
Q Source: World map based questions
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Question 48 of 100
48. Question
2 pointsThere is a provision for having nominated members in which of the following houses apart from Lok Sabha?
- Rajya Sabha
- Vidhan Sabha
- Vidhan Parishad
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
Correct
Solution: d)
Justification: President can nominate 12 members to the Rajya Sabha.
Governor may appoint 1 member to represent minorities, e.g. the Anglo-Indian community, if he finds that minority inadequately represented in the Vidhan Sabha.
In a Vidhan Parishad, one-sixth of members are nominated by the Governor from persons having knowledge or practical experience in fields such as literature, science, arts, the co-operative movement and social service.
Q Source: Indian Polity: M Lamikanth
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Justification: President can nominate 12 members to the Rajya Sabha.
Governor may appoint 1 member to represent minorities, e.g. the Anglo-Indian community, if he finds that minority inadequately represented in the Vidhan Sabha.
In a Vidhan Parishad, one-sixth of members are nominated by the Governor from persons having knowledge or practical experience in fields such as literature, science, arts, the co-operative movement and social service.
Q Source: Indian Polity: M Lamikanth
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Question 49 of 100
49. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following statements about the International Chambers of Commerce (ICC) is INCORRECT?
Correct
Solution: b)
Justification: ICC was in news as Sunil Mittal (Airtel CEO) was elevated to the post of ICC chairman.
He succeeds Terry McGraw, Chairman Emeritus of S&P Global, who became ICC’s Honorary Chairman. Sunil Mittal is the third Indian business leader to hold this position in ICC’s near 100 years history.
- The International Chamber of Commerce was founded in 1919 to serve world business by promoting trade and investment, open markets for goods and services, and the free flow of capital.
- ICC has unrivalled authority in making rules that govern the conduct of business across borders. Although these rules are voluntary, they are observed in countless thousands of transactions every day and have become part of international trade. So, option (b) is incorrect.
- The organization’s international secretariat was established in Paris and the ICC’s International Court of Arbitration was created in 1923.
- It was the first international organization to be granted this status with UNECOSOC.
Q Source: Improvisation: UPSC CSP 2014
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Justification: ICC was in news as Sunil Mittal (Airtel CEO) was elevated to the post of ICC chairman.
He succeeds Terry McGraw, Chairman Emeritus of S&P Global, who became ICC’s Honorary Chairman. Sunil Mittal is the third Indian business leader to hold this position in ICC’s near 100 years history.
- The International Chamber of Commerce was founded in 1919 to serve world business by promoting trade and investment, open markets for goods and services, and the free flow of capital.
- ICC has unrivalled authority in making rules that govern the conduct of business across borders. Although these rules are voluntary, they are observed in countless thousands of transactions every day and have become part of international trade. So, option (b) is incorrect.
- The organization’s international secretariat was established in Paris and the ICC’s International Court of Arbitration was created in 1923.
- It was the first international organization to be granted this status with UNECOSOC.
Q Source: Improvisation: UPSC CSP 2014
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Question 50 of 100
50. Question
2 pointsWhich of these bodies is responsible for selecting athletes to represent India at the Olympic Games, Asian Games and other international athletic meets?
Correct
Solution: d)
Learning: The question is in response to the recent controversy over few selections in Olympics from India.
- India first participated in Olympics in 1900 in Paris.
- The Indian Olympic Association is responsible for the preparation and participation of competitors in the Olympic Games as well as in Regional events like Commonwealth and Asian Games.
- A special feature of the Indian Olympic Association is that, in addition to the national federation for each sport, there are State Olympic Associations in various States in the country.
- The State bodies controlling the different sports are affiliated to the national federations and to the State Olympic Associations.
Q Source: Rio 2016 Olympics
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Learning: The question is in response to the recent controversy over few selections in Olympics from India.
- India first participated in Olympics in 1900 in Paris.
- The Indian Olympic Association is responsible for the preparation and participation of competitors in the Olympic Games as well as in Regional events like Commonwealth and Asian Games.
- A special feature of the Indian Olympic Association is that, in addition to the national federation for each sport, there are State Olympic Associations in various States in the country.
- The State bodies controlling the different sports are affiliated to the national federations and to the State Olympic Associations.
Q Source: Rio 2016 Olympics
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Question 51 of 100
51. Question
2 pointsThe Union Cabinet has approved a contract by the Ministry of Earth Sciences with the International Seabed Authority (ISA) for undertaking exploration and other developmental activities related to Polymetallic Sulphides in the Indian Ocean. Deep seabed Poly-Metallic Sulphides (PMS) usually consists of
Correct
Solution: d)
Learning: The seafloor has a varied set of valuable minerals that can be extracted, which includes resources for metals like gold, silver, copper and so forth.
Deep seabed Poly-Metallic Sulphides (PMS) containing iron, copper, zinc, silver, gold, platinum in variable constitutions are precipitates of hot fluids from upwelling hot magma from deep interior of the oceanic crust discharged through mineralized chimneys.
PMS in the Ocean Ridges have attracted worldwide attention for their long term commercial as well as strategic values.
Q Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=146216
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Learning: The seafloor has a varied set of valuable minerals that can be extracted, which includes resources for metals like gold, silver, copper and so forth.
Deep seabed Poly-Metallic Sulphides (PMS) containing iron, copper, zinc, silver, gold, platinum in variable constitutions are precipitates of hot fluids from upwelling hot magma from deep interior of the oceanic crust discharged through mineralized chimneys.
PMS in the Ocean Ridges have attracted worldwide attention for their long term commercial as well as strategic values.
Q Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=146216
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Question 52 of 100
52. Question
2 pointsSalma dam that been recently in news is
Correct
Solution: b)
Learning: India is spending $300 million on the Salma Dam project, which has been re-christened Afghan-India Friendship Dam.
It is expected to produce 42 MW of electricity and water nearly 80,000 hectares of farmland, giving a fillip to agriculture in Afghanistan.
The hydroelectric and irrigation project is being constructed on the Hari Rud river in Chiste Sharif district. Salma Dam was initially built in 1976, but was damaged during the war in Afghanistan.
The dam is being built by the Indian company (WAPCOS Ltd), which is under the Indian water resources ministry.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Learning: India is spending $300 million on the Salma Dam project, which has been re-christened Afghan-India Friendship Dam.
It is expected to produce 42 MW of electricity and water nearly 80,000 hectares of farmland, giving a fillip to agriculture in Afghanistan.
The hydroelectric and irrigation project is being constructed on the Hari Rud river in Chiste Sharif district. Salma Dam was initially built in 1976, but was damaged during the war in Afghanistan.
The dam is being built by the Indian company (WAPCOS Ltd), which is under the Indian water resources ministry.
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Question 53 of 100
53. Question
2 pointsA non-performing asset (NPAs) is a classification used by banks to refer to
Correct
Solution: d)
Learning: A non performing asset (NPA) is a loan or advance for which the principal or interest payment remained overdue for a certain period.
Banks are required to classify NPAs further into Substandard, Doubtful and Loss assets.
Indian banks both public and private are suffering with high NPAs due to sub-optimal management, weak global and domestic economic growth, low corporate profits due to stalled projects, wilful defaults and investment in risky and long-gestation infrastructure projects.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has recently issued guidelines called Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets (S4A).
Q Source: Frequently in news
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Learning: A non performing asset (NPA) is a loan or advance for which the principal or interest payment remained overdue for a certain period.
Banks are required to classify NPAs further into Substandard, Doubtful and Loss assets.
Indian banks both public and private are suffering with high NPAs due to sub-optimal management, weak global and domestic economic growth, low corporate profits due to stalled projects, wilful defaults and investment in risky and long-gestation infrastructure projects.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has recently issued guidelines called Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets (S4A).
Q Source: Frequently in news
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Question 54 of 100
54. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following protected areas is/are wetlands?
- Harike National Park
- Sultanpur National Park
- Betla national park
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
Correct
Solution: a)
Justification: Statement 1: Hari-ke-pattan, commonly famous as Harike wetland is the biggest wetland in the northern India. It is located in Tarn Taran Sahib District, Punjab. It is also regarded as one of the sites of Ramsar Convention in India for preservation, development and conservation of the ecosystem.
Statement 2: Approximately 250 species of Birds are found at Sultanpur Bird Sanctuary, which is also a wetland. Some of them are resident, while others come from distant regions like Siberia, Europe and Afghanistan.
Statement 3: The Betla National Park located in Jharkhand state’s district Palamu was the first park which was included in the Project Tiger and gained the status of a Tiger Reserve.The main attractions of this park are the tigers.
Q Source: Improvisation: UPSC past year papers
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Justification: Statement 1: Hari-ke-pattan, commonly famous as Harike wetland is the biggest wetland in the northern India. It is located in Tarn Taran Sahib District, Punjab. It is also regarded as one of the sites of Ramsar Convention in India for preservation, development and conservation of the ecosystem.
Statement 2: Approximately 250 species of Birds are found at Sultanpur Bird Sanctuary, which is also a wetland. Some of them are resident, while others come from distant regions like Siberia, Europe and Afghanistan.
Statement 3: The Betla National Park located in Jharkhand state’s district Palamu was the first park which was included in the Project Tiger and gained the status of a Tiger Reserve.The main attractions of this park are the tigers.
Q Source: Improvisation: UPSC past year papers
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Question 55 of 100
55. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements.
- The Parliament cannot enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India as its jurisdiction is fixed to that conferred by the unamended Constitution.
- The Parliament can increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court by a simple majority.
Which of the above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: b)
Justification: Statement 1: If the Parliament wishes to curtail the SC’s or HC’s authority, it will have to amend the constitution by a special majority with the consent of majority of the states.
Statement 2: Number of puisne judges in the Supreme Court and Conferment of more jurisdiction on the Supreme Court are matters that can be dealt by the Parliament with a simple majority.
Q Source: Indian Polity: M Lamikanth
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Justification: Statement 1: If the Parliament wishes to curtail the SC’s or HC’s authority, it will have to amend the constitution by a special majority with the consent of majority of the states.
Statement 2: Number of puisne judges in the Supreme Court and Conferment of more jurisdiction on the Supreme Court are matters that can be dealt by the Parliament with a simple majority.
Q Source: Indian Polity: M Lamikanth
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Question 56 of 100
56. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements.
Assertion (A): Mangroves are not found in all coastal belts of India, but are found in all coastal states of India.
Reason (R): Mangrove requires an appropriate mix of saline and freshwater to be able to grow which is not available everywhere.
In the context of the above, which of these is correct?
Correct
Solution: a)
Justification & Learning: India is home to some of the best mangroves in the world. West Bengal has the maximum of mangrove cover in the country followed by Gujarat and Andaman & Nicobar Islands.
However, not all coastal areas are suitable for mangrove plantation as mangrove requires an appropriate mix of saline and freshwater, and soft substrate like mudflats to be able to grow and perpetuate.
If the region is excessively saline, as many coastal belts that lack freshwater flows are, mangroves will find it difficult to grow.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Justification & Learning: India is home to some of the best mangroves in the world. West Bengal has the maximum of mangrove cover in the country followed by Gujarat and Andaman & Nicobar Islands.
However, not all coastal areas are suitable for mangrove plantation as mangrove requires an appropriate mix of saline and freshwater, and soft substrate like mudflats to be able to grow and perpetuate.
If the region is excessively saline, as many coastal belts that lack freshwater flows are, mangroves will find it difficult to grow.
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Question 57 of 100
57. Question
2 pointsVeeragase and Kolattam are
Correct
Solution: a)
Learning: Kolata/Kolattam is a traditional folk dance of the states of Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. Similar to its North Indian counterpart Dandiya Ras, it is performed with coloured sticks and usually involves both men and women dancing together.
Veeragase is a dance folk form prevalent in the state of Karnataka. It is a vigorous dance based on Hindu mythology and involves very intense energy-sapping dance movements. Veeragase is one of the dances demonstrated in the Dasara procession held in Mysore.
Q Source: Improvisation: UPSC CSP 2014
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Learning: Kolata/Kolattam is a traditional folk dance of the states of Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. Similar to its North Indian counterpart Dandiya Ras, it is performed with coloured sticks and usually involves both men and women dancing together.
Veeragase is a dance folk form prevalent in the state of Karnataka. It is a vigorous dance based on Hindu mythology and involves very intense energy-sapping dance movements. Veeragase is one of the dances demonstrated in the Dasara procession held in Mysore.
Q Source: Improvisation: UPSC CSP 2014
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Question 58 of 100
58. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements.
Assertion (A): The President of India has never exercised his Veto powers in India till date.
Reason (R): As per 24th Constitutional amendment, the President is bound to give his assent to any legislation passed by the Parliament.
In the context of the above, which of these is correct?
Correct
Solution: d)
Justification: In 1986, President Zail Singh exercised the pocket veto with respect to the Indian Post Office (Amendment) Bill. The bill, passed by the Rajiv Gandhi Government, imposed restrictions on the freedom of press and hence, was widely criticised.
After three years, in 1989, the next President R Venkataraman sent the bill back for reconsideration, but the new National Front Government decided to drop the bill. It should be noted here that the President has no veto power in respect of a constitutional amendment bill.
The 24th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1971 made it obligatory for the President to give his assent to a constitutional amendment bill (not an ordinary bill).
Q Source: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Justification: In 1986, President Zail Singh exercised the pocket veto with respect to the Indian Post Office (Amendment) Bill. The bill, passed by the Rajiv Gandhi Government, imposed restrictions on the freedom of press and hence, was widely criticised.
After three years, in 1989, the next President R Venkataraman sent the bill back for reconsideration, but the new National Front Government decided to drop the bill. It should be noted here that the President has no veto power in respect of a constitutional amendment bill.
The 24th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1971 made it obligatory for the President to give his assent to a constitutional amendment bill (not an ordinary bill).
Q Source: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
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Question 59 of 100
59. Question
2 pointsHow is the role of NITI Aayog different from its predecessor, Planning Commission (PC)?
- NITI Aayog is an advisor to the Union Finance Commission in its functions, unlike PC which overlapped some of UFC’s functions
- NITI Aayog will be made an attached office in every State Secretariat to improve coordination between the Centre and states, unlike in case of PC
Which of the above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: d)
Justification: Statement 1: UFC functions independently of the NITI Aayog. NITI Aayog makes perspective plans for analysing India’s economic growth and development to give policy prescriptions.
Statement 2: States are included in the Governing council of NITI Aayog. However, NITI Aayog will not be an attached office under State Secretariats.
Q Source: http://niti.gov.in/
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Justification: Statement 1: UFC functions independently of the NITI Aayog. NITI Aayog makes perspective plans for analysing India’s economic growth and development to give policy prescriptions.
Statement 2: States are included in the Governing council of NITI Aayog. However, NITI Aayog will not be an attached office under State Secretariats.
Q Source: http://niti.gov.in/
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Question 60 of 100
60. Question
2 pointsGandhiji called off the Non-cooperation movement in 1922 due to
Correct
Solution: d)
Learning: The movement was to be nonviolent and to consist of Indians resigning their titles; boycotting government educational institutions, the courts, government service, foreign goods, and elections; and, eventually, refusing to pay taxes. Noncooperation was agreed to by the Indian National Congress at Calcutta. So, 3 is wrong.
After an angry mob murdered police officers in the village of Chauri Chaura in 1922, Gandhi himself called off the movement; the next month he was arrested without incident.
The movement marked the transition of Indian nationalism from a middle-class movement to a mass based movement. So, 2 is wrong.
Q Source: Old NCERT: Modern History: Bipin Chandra
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Learning: The movement was to be nonviolent and to consist of Indians resigning their titles; boycotting government educational institutions, the courts, government service, foreign goods, and elections; and, eventually, refusing to pay taxes. Noncooperation was agreed to by the Indian National Congress at Calcutta. So, 3 is wrong.
After an angry mob murdered police officers in the village of Chauri Chaura in 1922, Gandhi himself called off the movement; the next month he was arrested without incident.
The movement marked the transition of Indian nationalism from a middle-class movement to a mass based movement. So, 2 is wrong.
Q Source: Old NCERT: Modern History: Bipin Chandra
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Question 61 of 100
61. Question
2 pointsHow is transpiration important for plants?
- It helps pull water to heights in tall trees.
- It keeps the plant warm in cold surroundings.
- It dispels pollinating agents away from plants.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
Correct
Solution: b)
Justification: Statement 1: It generates a suction pull in plants due to evaporation of water from leaves which helps suck more water from the roots way upwards.
Statement 2: It keeps the plant cold due to evaporation of the water from plant leaves.
Statement 3: Most plants perform transpiration and thus transpiration does not reduce the chances of pollination of a plant.
Q Source: 10th NCERT Science
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Justification: Statement 1: It generates a suction pull in plants due to evaporation of water from leaves which helps suck more water from the roots way upwards.
Statement 2: It keeps the plant cold due to evaporation of the water from plant leaves.
Statement 3: Most plants perform transpiration and thus transpiration does not reduce the chances of pollination of a plant.
Q Source: 10th NCERT Science
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Question 62 of 100
62. Question
2 pointsThe International Development Association (IDA) is
Correct
Solution: b)
Learning: It is an international financial institution which offers concessional loans and grants to the world’s poorest developing countries.
- The IDA is a member of the World Bank Group and is headquartered in Washington, D.C., United States.
- It was established in 1960 to complement the existing International Bank for Reconstruction and Development by lending to developing countries which suffer from the lowest gross national income, from troubled creditworthiness, or from the lowest per capita income.
- Together, the International Development Association and International Bank for Reconstruction and Development are collectively generally known as the World Bank, as they follow the same executive leadership and operate with the same staff.
Q Source: UPSC IES past year papers
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Learning: It is an international financial institution which offers concessional loans and grants to the world’s poorest developing countries.
- The IDA is a member of the World Bank Group and is headquartered in Washington, D.C., United States.
- It was established in 1960 to complement the existing International Bank for Reconstruction and Development by lending to developing countries which suffer from the lowest gross national income, from troubled creditworthiness, or from the lowest per capita income.
- Together, the International Development Association and International Bank for Reconstruction and Development are collectively generally known as the World Bank, as they follow the same executive leadership and operate with the same staff.
Q Source: UPSC IES past year papers
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Question 63 of 100
63. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following items has been the largest contributor for Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation since last three financial years?
Correct
Solution: c)
Justification: There has been upward pressure at wholesale and retail level in the prices of pulses, edible oils, onions, etc largely due to rising demand, reduced production due to poor monsoon, supply side bottlenecks like poor infrastructure, hoarding of grains, high international prices, revision in MSP etc.
The image below shows the contribution (see the Q source)
Q Source: Economic Survey 2015-16: Chapter “Prices, Agriculture and Food management– Vol II: Page 91”
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Justification: There has been upward pressure at wholesale and retail level in the prices of pulses, edible oils, onions, etc largely due to rising demand, reduced production due to poor monsoon, supply side bottlenecks like poor infrastructure, hoarding of grains, high international prices, revision in MSP etc.
The image below shows the contribution (see the Q source)
Q Source: Economic Survey 2015-16: Chapter “Prices, Agriculture and Food management– Vol II: Page 91”
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Question 64 of 100
64. Question
2 pointsThe Durand Line marks the contested international border line between
Correct
Solution: c)
Learning: Durand Line, boundary established in the Hindu Kush in 1893 running through the tribal lands between Afghanistan and British India, marking their respective spheres of influence; in modern times it has marked the border between Afghanistan and Pakistan.
The acceptance of this line—which was named for Sir Mortimer Durand, who induced the amir of Afghanistan, to agree to a boundary—may be said to have settled the Indo-Afghan frontier problem for the rest of the British period.
You may read the articles below.
http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/envisioning-a-new-afghanistan/article6637007.ece
https://www.khaama.com/afghanistan-has-never-accepted-durand-line-as-border-since-1893-karzai-01279
Q Source: http://www.huffingtonpost.com/joseph-v-micallef/afghanistan-and-pakistan_b_8590918.html
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Learning: Durand Line, boundary established in the Hindu Kush in 1893 running through the tribal lands between Afghanistan and British India, marking their respective spheres of influence; in modern times it has marked the border between Afghanistan and Pakistan.
The acceptance of this line—which was named for Sir Mortimer Durand, who induced the amir of Afghanistan, to agree to a boundary—may be said to have settled the Indo-Afghan frontier problem for the rest of the British period.
You may read the articles below.
http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/envisioning-a-new-afghanistan/article6637007.ece
https://www.khaama.com/afghanistan-has-never-accepted-durand-line-as-border-since-1893-karzai-01279
Q Source: http://www.huffingtonpost.com/joseph-v-micallef/afghanistan-and-pakistan_b_8590918.html
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Question 65 of 100
65. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements.
- It is a marine protected area located in Andaman.
- There are many islands in the national park.
- It is largely uninhabited with sparse population.
The above refer to?
Correct
Solution: a)
Justification: Most of the coral reefs in the MG marine national park (in Andaman Port Blair) are fringing reefs and the park is an important breeding ground for turtles.
Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park consist of 21 small islands and coral reefs in the Gulf of Mannar in the Indian Ocean of Tamil Nadu. The park has a high diversity of plants and animals in its marine and shore habitats, Dugong, a vulnerable marine mammal also found here.
Malvan Marine Sanctuary is the only marine sanctuary is located in Malvan Taluka of Sindhudurg district in Konkan region of Maharashtra. The Malvan Wildlife Sanctuary includes Padamged island and other submerged rocky structures.
Learning: Marine National Park in Gulf of Kutch is situated on the southern shore of the Gulf of in the Jamnagar of Gujarat. It is the first national marine park of India with 42 islands on the Jamnagar coast in the Marine National Park.
Q Source: Improvisation: UPSC IES 2014
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Justification: Most of the coral reefs in the MG marine national park (in Andaman Port Blair) are fringing reefs and the park is an important breeding ground for turtles.
Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park consist of 21 small islands and coral reefs in the Gulf of Mannar in the Indian Ocean of Tamil Nadu. The park has a high diversity of plants and animals in its marine and shore habitats, Dugong, a vulnerable marine mammal also found here.
Malvan Marine Sanctuary is the only marine sanctuary is located in Malvan Taluka of Sindhudurg district in Konkan region of Maharashtra. The Malvan Wildlife Sanctuary includes Padamged island and other submerged rocky structures.
Learning: Marine National Park in Gulf of Kutch is situated on the southern shore of the Gulf of in the Jamnagar of Gujarat. It is the first national marine park of India with 42 islands on the Jamnagar coast in the Marine National Park.
Q Source: Improvisation: UPSC IES 2014
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Question 66 of 100
66. Question
2 pointsThe Second Administrative Reforms Commission did NOT deal specifically with
Correct
Solution: d)
Learning: The 2nd ARC submitted the following reports:
- Right to Information: Master Key to Good Governance (First report)
- Unlocking human capital: Entitlements and Governance – a Case Study relating to NREGA (Second Report)
- Crisis Management From Despair to Hope (Third report)
- Ethics in Governance (Fourth Report)
- Public order (Fifth Report)
- Local Governance (Sixth Report)
- Capacity Building for Conflict Resolution (Seventh Report)
- Combating Terrorism Protecting by Righteousness (Eight Report)
- Social Capital-A Shared Destiny (Ninth Report)
- Refurbishing of Personal Administration- Scaling new Heights (Tenth Report)
- Promoting e-governance: The smart way Forward (Eleventh Report)
- Citizen Centric Administration – The Heart of Governance (Twelfth Report)
- Organisational Structure of Government of India (Thirteenth Report)
- Strengthening Financial management System (Fourteenth Report)
- State and District Administration (Fifteenth Report)
Q Source: Topic asked in many UPSC papers
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Learning: The 2nd ARC submitted the following reports:
- Right to Information: Master Key to Good Governance (First report)
- Unlocking human capital: Entitlements and Governance – a Case Study relating to NREGA (Second Report)
- Crisis Management From Despair to Hope (Third report)
- Ethics in Governance (Fourth Report)
- Public order (Fifth Report)
- Local Governance (Sixth Report)
- Capacity Building for Conflict Resolution (Seventh Report)
- Combating Terrorism Protecting by Righteousness (Eight Report)
- Social Capital-A Shared Destiny (Ninth Report)
- Refurbishing of Personal Administration- Scaling new Heights (Tenth Report)
- Promoting e-governance: The smart way Forward (Eleventh Report)
- Citizen Centric Administration – The Heart of Governance (Twelfth Report)
- Organisational Structure of Government of India (Thirteenth Report)
- Strengthening Financial management System (Fourteenth Report)
- State and District Administration (Fifteenth Report)
Q Source: Topic asked in many UPSC papers
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Question 67 of 100
67. Question
2 pointsThe Right to showcase films in India
Correct
Solution: b)
Justification: Article 19(1) (a) provides for freedom of speech and expression which extends to works of arts, audio, video, documentary etc including movies/cinema. However, reasonable restrictions apply to the exercise of these rights in the interest of national security, sovereignty, public order, morality, decency etc.
A21 provides for Right to life and liberty.
Rule of law means the law will apply to all entities present in India, and does not directly provide for freedom of speech.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Justification: Article 19(1) (a) provides for freedom of speech and expression which extends to works of arts, audio, video, documentary etc including movies/cinema. However, reasonable restrictions apply to the exercise of these rights in the interest of national security, sovereignty, public order, morality, decency etc.
A21 provides for Right to life and liberty.
Rule of law means the law will apply to all entities present in India, and does not directly provide for freedom of speech.
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Question 68 of 100
68. Question
2 pointsConsider the following about the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA).
- It was constituted in 1973 as a statutory body to implement the ‘Project Tiger’ from the start of the project.
- Minister for Environment, Forest and Climate Change chairs the body.
- It approves the tiger conservation plan prepared by the State Governments.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
Correct
Solution: b)
Justification: Statement 1: As per the recommendations of a special task-force of the Indian Board of Wildlife, Project Tiger was launched in 1973. In 2005, The National Tiger Conservation Authority was established in following a recommendation of the Tiger Task Force under the Wildlife Act (amendment) Act.
Statement 2: Chairman of the National Tiger Conservation Authority is Minister for Environment & Forests. It has eight experts or professionals having qualifications and experience in wildlife conservation and welfare of people including tribals, apart from three Members of Parliament (1 Rajya Sabha, 2 Lok Sabha).
The Inspector General of Forests, in charge of project Tiger is the ex-officio Member Secretary.
Statement 3: It also lays down normative standards for tourism activities and guidelines for project tiger from time to time for tiger conservation in the buffer and core area of tiger reserves and ensure their due compliance.
Q Source: http://projecttiger.nic.in/content/113_1_PowerandFunctionsoftheNTCA.aspx
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Justification: Statement 1: As per the recommendations of a special task-force of the Indian Board of Wildlife, Project Tiger was launched in 1973. In 2005, The National Tiger Conservation Authority was established in following a recommendation of the Tiger Task Force under the Wildlife Act (amendment) Act.
Statement 2: Chairman of the National Tiger Conservation Authority is Minister for Environment & Forests. It has eight experts or professionals having qualifications and experience in wildlife conservation and welfare of people including tribals, apart from three Members of Parliament (1 Rajya Sabha, 2 Lok Sabha).
The Inspector General of Forests, in charge of project Tiger is the ex-officio Member Secretary.
Statement 3: It also lays down normative standards for tourism activities and guidelines for project tiger from time to time for tiger conservation in the buffer and core area of tiger reserves and ensure their due compliance.
Q Source: http://projecttiger.nic.in/content/113_1_PowerandFunctionsoftheNTCA.aspx
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Question 69 of 100
69. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements.
Assertion (A): The National Commission for Minorities is not a constitutional body.
Reason (R): The constitution does not explicitly define “minorities”.
In the context of the above, which of these is correct?
Correct
Solution: b)
Justification: The constitution does not define the term “devolution of taxes” does not mean that Finance Commission cannot be a constitution body. Similarly, whether a body is constitutional or not is decided by whether the body is established through constitutional provisions or not, irrespective of whether ancillary terms related to it are defined or note defined in the constitution.
The Union Government set up the National Commission for Minorities (NCM) under the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992. Six religious communities, viz; Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, Zoroastrians (Parsis) and Jains have been notified as minority communities by the Union Government.
Q Source: Past year UPSC CSP papers
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Justification: The constitution does not define the term “devolution of taxes” does not mean that Finance Commission cannot be a constitution body. Similarly, whether a body is constitutional or not is decided by whether the body is established through constitutional provisions or not, irrespective of whether ancillary terms related to it are defined or note defined in the constitution.
The Union Government set up the National Commission for Minorities (NCM) under the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992. Six religious communities, viz; Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, Zoroastrians (Parsis) and Jains have been notified as minority communities by the Union Government.
Q Source: Past year UPSC CSP papers
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Question 70 of 100
70. Question
2 pointsThe recently announced National Civil Aviation Policy does NOT focus on
Correct
Solution: d)
Learning: This is for the first time since Independence that an integrated Civil Aviation Policy has been brought out by the Union Ministry of Civil Aviation (MoCA).
Civil Aviation Policy 2016 aims at making India 3rd largest civil aviation market by 2022 from current 9th position; and increasing domestic ticketing to 30 crore by 2022 from 8 crore in 2015, apart from many other objectives.
You can read more about the sections (e.g. regional connectivity) given in the document at Q Source.
Q Source: http://www.civilaviation.gov.in/sites/default/files/Final_NCAP_2016_15-06-2016.pdf
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Learning: This is for the first time since Independence that an integrated Civil Aviation Policy has been brought out by the Union Ministry of Civil Aviation (MoCA).
Civil Aviation Policy 2016 aims at making India 3rd largest civil aviation market by 2022 from current 9th position; and increasing domestic ticketing to 30 crore by 2022 from 8 crore in 2015, apart from many other objectives.
You can read more about the sections (e.g. regional connectivity) given in the document at Q Source.
Q Source: http://www.civilaviation.gov.in/sites/default/files/Final_NCAP_2016_15-06-2016.pdf
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Question 71 of 100
71. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following is/are the principal tributaries of the Brahmaputra River?
- Sengar
- Lohit
- Uttangan
- Subansiri
- Dibang
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
Correct
Solution: b)
Justification & Learning: Uttangan and Sengar are tributaries of Yamuna.
- Brahmaputra basin is bounded by the Himalayas on the north, by the Patkari range of hills on the east running along the India-Myanmar border, by the Assam range of hills on the south and by the Himalayas and the ridge separating it from Ganga basin on the west.
- The Brahmaputra River originates in the north from Kailash ranges of Himalayas at an elevation of 5,150 m just south of the lake called Konggyu Tsho.
- The principal tributaries of the river joining from right are the Lohit, the Dibang, the Subansiri, the Jiabharali, the Dhansiri, the Manas, the Torsa, the Sankosh and the Teesta whereas the Burhidihing, the Desang, the Dikhow, the Dhansiri and the Kopili joins it from left.
- Image below: view of a sunset captured from near Sukleswar ghat in Guwahati – Saraighat Bridge across the river Brahmaputra.
Q Source: 11th India Physical Geography NCERT
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Justification & Learning: Uttangan and Sengar are tributaries of Yamuna.
- Brahmaputra basin is bounded by the Himalayas on the north, by the Patkari range of hills on the east running along the India-Myanmar border, by the Assam range of hills on the south and by the Himalayas and the ridge separating it from Ganga basin on the west.
- The Brahmaputra River originates in the north from Kailash ranges of Himalayas at an elevation of 5,150 m just south of the lake called Konggyu Tsho.
- The principal tributaries of the river joining from right are the Lohit, the Dibang, the Subansiri, the Jiabharali, the Dhansiri, the Manas, the Torsa, the Sankosh and the Teesta whereas the Burhidihing, the Desang, the Dikhow, the Dhansiri and the Kopili joins it from left.
- Image below: view of a sunset captured from near Sukleswar ghat in Guwahati – Saraighat Bridge across the river Brahmaputra.
Q Source: 11th India Physical Geography NCERT
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Question 72 of 100
72. Question
2 pointsThe notion of “Competitive Federalism” implies
Correct
Solution: b)
Learning: In competitive federalism, states would compete with each other over a broad range issues to provide citizens various services in a hassle-free manner.
The policy of one-size-fit-all is replaced with different policies of various states based on the own priorities with in the state. Each state will design their own policies for development of the state with self-fund.
The concept also promotes discipline among the states.
Also see this, http://www.thehindubusinessline.com/opinion/columns/what-sort-of-federalism-do-we-want/article6963380.ece
Q Source: Frequently in news
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Learning: In competitive federalism, states would compete with each other over a broad range issues to provide citizens various services in a hassle-free manner.
The policy of one-size-fit-all is replaced with different policies of various states based on the own priorities with in the state. Each state will design their own policies for development of the state with self-fund.
The concept also promotes discipline among the states.
Also see this, http://www.thehindubusinessline.com/opinion/columns/what-sort-of-federalism-do-we-want/article6963380.ece
Q Source: Frequently in news
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Question 73 of 100
73. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following sectors is the largest consumer of electricity in India?
Correct
Solution: a)
Learning: Industrial consumers are the largest consumers of electricity in India. In FY13-14, industrial consumers accounted for 44% of the total electricity sold by utilities; however, their share in actual consumption was much higher as many industries met their power requirement through captive generation.
Domestic and agriculture sectors are the other major consumers who have respective shares of 22% and 18% in total power consumption. While the public services account for 4% of sales, the Railways and other consumers account for a share of 2% each in overall sales. You can see the statistics here at page 40 http://mospi.nic.in/Mospi_New/upload/Energy_stats_2015_26mar15.pdf
Q Source: Economic Survey: Chapter “Power One India”
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Learning: Industrial consumers are the largest consumers of electricity in India. In FY13-14, industrial consumers accounted for 44% of the total electricity sold by utilities; however, their share in actual consumption was much higher as many industries met their power requirement through captive generation.
Domestic and agriculture sectors are the other major consumers who have respective shares of 22% and 18% in total power consumption. While the public services account for 4% of sales, the Railways and other consumers account for a share of 2% each in overall sales. You can see the statistics here at page 40 http://mospi.nic.in/Mospi_New/upload/Energy_stats_2015_26mar15.pdf
Q Source: Economic Survey: Chapter “Power One India”
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Question 74 of 100
74. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements about a tiger reserve.
- Landscape of the reserve is characterized with ‘Table Top’ topography.
- The Ken River enters the reserve from the southern end and passes through for a long distance before exiting the reserve.
- Two plateaus run parallel to each other from south-west to north-easterly direction.
The above refer to?
Correct
Solution: a)
Learning: Situated in the Vindhyan mountain range in the northern part of Madhya Pradesh, Panna Tiger Reserve is spread over the Panna and Chhatarpur districts.
The terrain here consists of extensive plateaus and gorges. This reserve contains the last remaining tiger habitat of North Madhya Pradesh.
Flowing from the south to the north through the reserve is the River Ken. These forests along with Ken Gharial Sanctuary form a significant part of the catchment area of this river.
Q Source: http://www.moef.nic.in/sites/default/files/Stripes-2013.11-12.pdf
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Learning: Situated in the Vindhyan mountain range in the northern part of Madhya Pradesh, Panna Tiger Reserve is spread over the Panna and Chhatarpur districts.
The terrain here consists of extensive plateaus and gorges. This reserve contains the last remaining tiger habitat of North Madhya Pradesh.
Flowing from the south to the north through the reserve is the River Ken. These forests along with Ken Gharial Sanctuary form a significant part of the catchment area of this river.
Q Source: http://www.moef.nic.in/sites/default/files/Stripes-2013.11-12.pdf
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Question 75 of 100
75. Question
2 pointsConsider the following about the Perform Achieve and Trade (PAT) scheme.
- It is a scheme under the National Mission on Enhanced Energy Efficiency.
- It allows the trading of energy savings certificate between parties.
Which of the above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: c)
Justification: The Perform Achieve Trade (PAT) is an innovative, market-based trading scheme announced by the Indian Government in 2008 under its National Mission on Enhanced Energy Efficiency (NMEEE) in National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC).
- It aims to improve energy efficiency in industries by trading in energy efficiency certificates in energy-intensive sectors
- The scheme imposes mandatory specific energy consumption targets on the covered facilities with less energy efficient facilities having a greater reduction target than the more energy efficient ones.
Q Source: Economic Survey 2015-16: Chapter “Climate change and sustainable development”
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Justification: The Perform Achieve Trade (PAT) is an innovative, market-based trading scheme announced by the Indian Government in 2008 under its National Mission on Enhanced Energy Efficiency (NMEEE) in National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC).
- It aims to improve energy efficiency in industries by trading in energy efficiency certificates in energy-intensive sectors
- The scheme imposes mandatory specific energy consumption targets on the covered facilities with less energy efficient facilities having a greater reduction target than the more energy efficient ones.
Q Source: Economic Survey 2015-16: Chapter “Climate change and sustainable development”
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Question 76 of 100
76. Question
2 pointsAs per the tradition of Tantricism
- An aspirant can achieve salvation only after fulfilling his/her Karmas.
- A teacher or Guru is not needed as the door to salvation opens from the Self.
- The spiritual path should be open to all castes, men and women alike.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
Correct
Solution: b)
Learning: Tantricism became much popular during this period. It originated during the 6th century but started getting popularity from the 8th century.
- It spread in particular, in northeastern India. Some of its rituals were adopted from the Tibetan practices.
- The scholars suggest that Tantricism was the simplification of the Vedic cults and its door were equally open to all castes as well as to women. So, 3 is correct.
- The followers of Tantricism believe that all life proceeds from Shakti. Parvati. Durga, Lakshmi and Radha are merely different names of the Jagatmata.
- Tantricism puts special emphasis on praycrs, mystical formulae, magical diagrams and symbols and the worship of a particular deity.
- According to Tantricism, a Sadhaka or the aspirant can achieve salvation only after identifying himself with his Ishtadevata or chosen deity. So, 1 is wrong.
- Thus, Tantricism was also connected with Shakta-Shakti cult.
- In it Guru had the highest place. It was imperative to be initiated by a Guru for becoming a member of Tantricism. So, 2 is wrong.
Q Source: Medieval History: Major traditions
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Learning: Tantricism became much popular during this period. It originated during the 6th century but started getting popularity from the 8th century.
- It spread in particular, in northeastern India. Some of its rituals were adopted from the Tibetan practices.
- The scholars suggest that Tantricism was the simplification of the Vedic cults and its door were equally open to all castes as well as to women. So, 3 is correct.
- The followers of Tantricism believe that all life proceeds from Shakti. Parvati. Durga, Lakshmi and Radha are merely different names of the Jagatmata.
- Tantricism puts special emphasis on praycrs, mystical formulae, magical diagrams and symbols and the worship of a particular deity.
- According to Tantricism, a Sadhaka or the aspirant can achieve salvation only after identifying himself with his Ishtadevata or chosen deity. So, 1 is wrong.
- Thus, Tantricism was also connected with Shakta-Shakti cult.
- In it Guru had the highest place. It was imperative to be initiated by a Guru for becoming a member of Tantricism. So, 2 is wrong.
Q Source: Medieval History: Major traditions
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Question 77 of 100
77. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following sectors has witnessed negative growth in output in at least one year in the last three financial years?
Correct
Solution: c)
Justification: Please see this http://www.dnaindia.com/money/report-india-s-farm-output-falls-for-the-first-time-in-5-years-amid-fears-of-drought-2092207
The major reason for the fall in agriculture output was drought due to poor monsoon rainfall caused by El-nino patterns.
The image below shows the growth trend (if you can’t access, see the Q source)
Q Source: Economic Survey 2015-16: Chapter “State of the Indian Economy – Vol II: Page 7”
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Justification: Please see this http://www.dnaindia.com/money/report-india-s-farm-output-falls-for-the-first-time-in-5-years-amid-fears-of-drought-2092207
The major reason for the fall in agriculture output was drought due to poor monsoon rainfall caused by El-nino patterns.
The image below shows the growth trend (if you can’t access, see the Q source)
Q Source: Economic Survey 2015-16: Chapter “State of the Indian Economy – Vol II: Page 7”
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Question 78 of 100
78. Question
2 pointsThe National River Conservation Directorate (NRCD) falls within the
Correct
Solution: a)
Learning: The National River Conservation Directorate (NRCD) in the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change is implementing the Centrally Sponsored Schemes of National River Conservation Plan (NRCP) and National Plan for Conservation of Aquatic Eco-systems’(NPCA) for conservation of rivers, lakes and wetlands in the country.
According to a recent the gazette notification, the National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA), including the mission Directorate, National Mission for Clean Ganga and other related matters of Ganga Rejuvenation have been transferred to the Ministry of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation from the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
All issues related to conservative, development management and abatement of pollution in the Ganga and its tributaries will also be looked after by the Ministry of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation, while the MoEF will look after all other rivers and will retain the National River Conservation Directorate (NRCD).
Q Source: http://www.moef.nic.in/division/national-river-conservation-directorate-nrcd
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Learning: The National River Conservation Directorate (NRCD) in the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change is implementing the Centrally Sponsored Schemes of National River Conservation Plan (NRCP) and National Plan for Conservation of Aquatic Eco-systems’(NPCA) for conservation of rivers, lakes and wetlands in the country.
According to a recent the gazette notification, the National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA), including the mission Directorate, National Mission for Clean Ganga and other related matters of Ganga Rejuvenation have been transferred to the Ministry of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation from the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
All issues related to conservative, development management and abatement of pollution in the Ganga and its tributaries will also be looked after by the Ministry of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation, while the MoEF will look after all other rivers and will retain the National River Conservation Directorate (NRCD).
Q Source: http://www.moef.nic.in/division/national-river-conservation-directorate-nrcd
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Question 79 of 100
79. Question
2 pointsClimate change can be caused by
- Variations in solar radiation received by Earth
- Volcanic eruptions
- Plate tectonics
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
Correct
Solution: d)
Justification: Statement 1: The rate at which energy is received from the Sun and the rate at which it is lost to space determine the equilibrium temperature and climate of Earth.
This energy is distributed around the globe by winds, ocean currents, and other mechanisms to affect the climates of different regions.
Statement 2: The eruptions considered to be large enough to affect the Earth’s climate on a scale of more than 1 year are the ones that inject over 100,000 tons of SO2 into the stratosphere.
This is due to the optical properties of SO2 and sulfate aerosols, which strongly absorb or scatter solar radiation, creating a global layer of sulfuric acid haze blocking sun radiation.
Statement 3: The position of the continents determines the geometry of the oceans and therefore influences patterns of ocean circulation. The locations of the seas are important in controlling the transfer of heat and moisture across the globe, and therefore, in determining global climate.
A recent example of tectonic control on ocean circulation is the formation of the Isthmus of Panama about 5 million years ago, which shut off direct mixing between the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans. This strongly affected the ocean dynamics of what is now the Gulf Stream.
Q Source: Environment concepts
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Justification: Statement 1: The rate at which energy is received from the Sun and the rate at which it is lost to space determine the equilibrium temperature and climate of Earth.
This energy is distributed around the globe by winds, ocean currents, and other mechanisms to affect the climates of different regions.
Statement 2: The eruptions considered to be large enough to affect the Earth’s climate on a scale of more than 1 year are the ones that inject over 100,000 tons of SO2 into the stratosphere.
This is due to the optical properties of SO2 and sulfate aerosols, which strongly absorb or scatter solar radiation, creating a global layer of sulfuric acid haze blocking sun radiation.
Statement 3: The position of the continents determines the geometry of the oceans and therefore influences patterns of ocean circulation. The locations of the seas are important in controlling the transfer of heat and moisture across the globe, and therefore, in determining global climate.
A recent example of tectonic control on ocean circulation is the formation of the Isthmus of Panama about 5 million years ago, which shut off direct mixing between the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans. This strongly affected the ocean dynamics of what is now the Gulf Stream.
Q Source: Environment concepts
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Question 80 of 100
80. Question
2 pointsGovernment of India generates the maximum tax revenue from
Correct
Solution: b)
Learning: The image below shows the contribution of tax revenue from different sectors (see Q Source)
Corporate tax is also the most significant tax as it affects domestic economic activity directly by affecting the corporate balance sheets. It is also a direct tax, so the incidence of this tax cannot be shifted on the consumers.
Q Source: Economic Survey 2015-16: Chapter “Public Finance– Vol II”
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Learning: The image below shows the contribution of tax revenue from different sectors (see Q Source)
Corporate tax is also the most significant tax as it affects domestic economic activity directly by affecting the corporate balance sheets. It is also a direct tax, so the incidence of this tax cannot be shifted on the consumers.
Q Source: Economic Survey 2015-16: Chapter “Public Finance– Vol II”
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Question 81 of 100
81. Question
2 pointsHow is Judicial Independence secured by charging the salaries and allowances of the Judges of the High Court to the Consolidated Fund of the State (CFS)?
Correct
Solution: b)
Justification & Learning: Since the expenditure is non-votable, the legislature cannot alter the judge’s salary at will and interfere in judicial independence unnecessarily.
The article 202 deals with the state budget. Article 202(3) says: The following expenditure shall be expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of each State— (we are covering only major expenditure items apart from HC judges)
- The emoluments and allowances of the Governor and other expenditure relating to his office;
- The salaries and allowances of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly and, in the case of a State having a Legislative Council, also of the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Legislative Council.
However please note that the retired Judges are entitled to a pension which is drawn from consolidated fund of India.
Q Source: Indian Polity: M Lamikanth
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Justification & Learning: Since the expenditure is non-votable, the legislature cannot alter the judge’s salary at will and interfere in judicial independence unnecessarily.
The article 202 deals with the state budget. Article 202(3) says: The following expenditure shall be expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of each State— (we are covering only major expenditure items apart from HC judges)
- The emoluments and allowances of the Governor and other expenditure relating to his office;
- The salaries and allowances of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly and, in the case of a State having a Legislative Council, also of the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Legislative Council.
However please note that the retired Judges are entitled to a pension which is drawn from consolidated fund of India.
Q Source: Indian Polity: M Lamikanth
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Question 82 of 100
82. Question
2 pointsThe sixth century BCE is often regarded as a major turning point in early Indian history and is associated with
- Abandoning of iron and growing use of metal alloys
- Growth of diverse systems of thought including Buddhism and Jainism
- Emergence of Sixteen Mahajanapadas
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
Correct
Solution: b)
Justification: Statement 1: Iron was being used more since 6th century BCE.
The sixth century BCE is an era associated with early states, cities, the growing use of iron, the development of coinage, etc.
It also witnessed the growth of diverse systems of thought, including Buddhism and Jainism. Early Buddhist and Jaina texts mention, amongst other things, sixteen states known as mahajanapadas.
Although the lists vary, some names such as Vajji, Magadha, Koshala, Kuru, Panchala, Gandhara and Avanti occur frequently. Clearly, these were amongst the most important mahajanapadas.
Q Source: Chapter 2: Themes in Indian History: 12th NCERT
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Justification: Statement 1: Iron was being used more since 6th century BCE.
The sixth century BCE is an era associated with early states, cities, the growing use of iron, the development of coinage, etc.
It also witnessed the growth of diverse systems of thought, including Buddhism and Jainism. Early Buddhist and Jaina texts mention, amongst other things, sixteen states known as mahajanapadas.
Although the lists vary, some names such as Vajji, Magadha, Koshala, Kuru, Panchala, Gandhara and Avanti occur frequently. Clearly, these were amongst the most important mahajanapadas.
Q Source: Chapter 2: Themes in Indian History: 12th NCERT
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Question 83 of 100
83. Question
2 pointsThe longest national highway of India connects which of the following places in India?
Correct
Solution: a)
Learning: National Highway 7 is renamed as National Highway 44, the 2,369 km long road is the longest National Highway of India and one of the major road network between south and north India.
The highway connects several important Indian cities such as Srinagar , Delhi, Hyderabad, Bangalore, Madurai and Kanyakumari. NH 44 covers the North-South Corridor of NHDP and it is officially listed as running over 3,745 km (2,327 mi) from Srinagar to Kanyakumari.
Some of the part of NH7 or NH44 is selected as North-South Corridor and Golden Quadrilateral highway projects.
Q Source: Improvisation: UPSC CSP 2014
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Learning: National Highway 7 is renamed as National Highway 44, the 2,369 km long road is the longest National Highway of India and one of the major road network between south and north India.
The highway connects several important Indian cities such as Srinagar , Delhi, Hyderabad, Bangalore, Madurai and Kanyakumari. NH 44 covers the North-South Corridor of NHDP and it is officially listed as running over 3,745 km (2,327 mi) from Srinagar to Kanyakumari.
Some of the part of NH7 or NH44 is selected as North-South Corridor and Golden Quadrilateral highway projects.
Q Source: Improvisation: UPSC CSP 2014
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Question 84 of 100
84. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements about cropping pattern in India.
- The land acreage under Rice is highest in India among all foodgrains.
- The acreage under all crops has increased substantially in last two years owing to the upwards revision in MSP.
Which of the above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: a)
Justification: Statement 1: It is around 43 million hectares for rice, 31 mha for wheat, 23 and 25 mha for pulses and oilseeds.
Statement 2: The acreage under several crops declined substantially in 2014-15 compared to 2013-14. The largest decline was in the areas of gram and groundnut of around 20 and 15 per cent respectively.
Only the areas under Sugarcane and Cotton saw an increase in 2014-15 as compared to 2013-14.
Please see the statistical table in the Q source.
Q Source: Economic Survey 2015-16: Chapter “Prices, Agriculture and Food management– Vol II: Page 100”
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Justification: Statement 1: It is around 43 million hectares for rice, 31 mha for wheat, 23 and 25 mha for pulses and oilseeds.
Statement 2: The acreage under several crops declined substantially in 2014-15 compared to 2013-14. The largest decline was in the areas of gram and groundnut of around 20 and 15 per cent respectively.
Only the areas under Sugarcane and Cotton saw an increase in 2014-15 as compared to 2013-14.
Please see the statistical table in the Q source.
Q Source: Economic Survey 2015-16: Chapter “Prices, Agriculture and Food management– Vol II: Page 100”
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Question 85 of 100
85. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements.
- Bijak is the scripture of Kabir Panth and contains works attributed to Kabir only.
- Pancvani was composed by Nayanar saints while propagating their faith in Northern Indian region.
Which of the above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: a)
Justification: Statement 1 and 2: The Rajasthani collection, Kabir Granthavali is part of the larger collection – Pancvani ( words of the five ), which includes sayings of five saints exalted by the Dadu Panth of Dadu Dayal ( Kabir’s illustrious disciple).
The Bijak, which is the scripture of the Kabir Panth only contains works attributed to Kabir. The dates of origin of the Pancvani/ and the Bijak are uncertain but both can be assumed to have taken shape in the seventeenth century, rather later than the Adi Granth.
Q Source: Improvisation: UPSC CSP 2014
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Justification: Statement 1 and 2: The Rajasthani collection, Kabir Granthavali is part of the larger collection – Pancvani ( words of the five ), which includes sayings of five saints exalted by the Dadu Panth of Dadu Dayal ( Kabir’s illustrious disciple).
The Bijak, which is the scripture of the Kabir Panth only contains works attributed to Kabir. The dates of origin of the Pancvani/ and the Bijak are uncertain but both can be assumed to have taken shape in the seventeenth century, rather later than the Adi Granth.
Q Source: Improvisation: UPSC CSP 2014
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Question 86 of 100
86. Question
2 pointsThe government has setup a body “Invest India” to act as a structured mechanism to attract investment, which is a
Correct
Solution: b)
Learning: Invest India is a joint-venture company between the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion and FICCI, as a not-for-profit, single window facilitator, for prospective overseas investors and to act as a structured mechanism to attract investment.
In addition, the Government has initiated implementation of the e-Biz Project, a mission mode project under the NeGP (National e-Governance Plan) for promoting an online single window at the national level for business users.
The objectives of setting up of the e-Biz portal are to provide a number of services to business users, covering the entire life cycle of their operation. The project aims at enhancing India’s business competitiveness through a service oriented, event-driven G2B (Government to Business) interaction.
Q Source: Indian Economy: Ramesh Singh
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Learning: Invest India is a joint-venture company between the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion and FICCI, as a not-for-profit, single window facilitator, for prospective overseas investors and to act as a structured mechanism to attract investment.
In addition, the Government has initiated implementation of the e-Biz Project, a mission mode project under the NeGP (National e-Governance Plan) for promoting an online single window at the national level for business users.
The objectives of setting up of the e-Biz portal are to provide a number of services to business users, covering the entire life cycle of their operation. The project aims at enhancing India’s business competitiveness through a service oriented, event-driven G2B (Government to Business) interaction.
Q Source: Indian Economy: Ramesh Singh
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Question 87 of 100
87. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following terms does NOT find a mention in the Preamble to the constitution of India?
Correct
Solution: c)
Justification & Learning: “WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic and to secure to all its citizens: JUSTICE, social, economic and political; LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship; EQUALITY of status and of opportunity; and to promote among them all FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation…………… do hereby adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constitution.
Q Source: Indian Polity: M Lamikanth
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Justification & Learning: “WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic and to secure to all its citizens: JUSTICE, social, economic and political; LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship; EQUALITY of status and of opportunity; and to promote among them all FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation…………… do hereby adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constitution.
Q Source: Indian Polity: M Lamikanth
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Question 88 of 100
88. Question
2 pointsTrade balance does NOT form part of calculation of
Correct
Solution: a)
Justification: Option (a): Trade balance forms part of the Net Income from abroad, not Net Factor Income from abroad.
NFIA is the income earned by factors working in host or foreign nation, and does not include value of imports or exports as such. So, (a) is the answer.
Option (c): From the expenditure side, GDP at current market prices can be seen as the sum of (a) consumption—both private and public (b) investment, also known as Gross Capital Formation (GCF) which comprises fixed capital formation, change in stock and valuables, and, (c) net exports which represent the difference between exports and imports of goods and non-factor services (Net factor Income excluded).
So, clearly option (c) is wrong.
Options (b) and (d): Trade balance is an important component of CAD. CAD is an important component of BoP. So, both options are wrong.
Q Source: 12th NCERT: Macroeconomics
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Justification: Option (a): Trade balance forms part of the Net Income from abroad, not Net Factor Income from abroad.
NFIA is the income earned by factors working in host or foreign nation, and does not include value of imports or exports as such. So, (a) is the answer.
Option (c): From the expenditure side, GDP at current market prices can be seen as the sum of (a) consumption—both private and public (b) investment, also known as Gross Capital Formation (GCF) which comprises fixed capital formation, change in stock and valuables, and, (c) net exports which represent the difference between exports and imports of goods and non-factor services (Net factor Income excluded).
So, clearly option (c) is wrong.
Options (b) and (d): Trade balance is an important component of CAD. CAD is an important component of BoP. So, both options are wrong.
Q Source: 12th NCERT: Macroeconomics
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Question 89 of 100
89. Question
2 pointsRecently, the Union government and the World Bank signed a $50-million credit agreement for Nai Manzil project. The Nayi Manzil scheme aims at
Correct
Solution: a)
Learning: This scheme is launched by the Ministry of Minority Affairs in August 2015.
The aim of the scheme is employment generation of the youths and also extending loans for opening enterprises.
The scheme would provide ‘bridge courses’ to the trainees and get them Certificates for Class XII and X through ‘distance medium educational system’ and at the same time also provides them trade basis skill training in 4 courses – Manufacturing, Engineering, Services, Soft skills.
The scheme covers the entire country.
Q Source: January current affairs: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=133273
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Learning: This scheme is launched by the Ministry of Minority Affairs in August 2015.
The aim of the scheme is employment generation of the youths and also extending loans for opening enterprises.
The scheme would provide ‘bridge courses’ to the trainees and get them Certificates for Class XII and X through ‘distance medium educational system’ and at the same time also provides them trade basis skill training in 4 courses – Manufacturing, Engineering, Services, Soft skills.
The scheme covers the entire country.
Q Source: January current affairs: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=133273
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Question 90 of 100
90. Question
2 pointsThe White-Fi technology sometimes in news intends to
Correct
Solution: c)
Learning: At present, unused spectrum is allotted to television broadcasters.
This unused gap is called “White space”.
Companies like Microsoft want to use it, to beam wifi on a bigger scale of 10 kms radius, with 15 mbps speed at an affordable cost of router.
This can provide internet connectivity to villages and tribal areas. But the government must give the unused spectrum to tech companies first that beam internet.
Microsoft recently got the trial-permission for white-fi in Bangalore.
Telangana Government is also interested in this technology for Hyderabad.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Learning: At present, unused spectrum is allotted to television broadcasters.
This unused gap is called “White space”.
Companies like Microsoft want to use it, to beam wifi on a bigger scale of 10 kms radius, with 15 mbps speed at an affordable cost of router.
This can provide internet connectivity to villages and tribal areas. But the government must give the unused spectrum to tech companies first that beam internet.
Microsoft recently got the trial-permission for white-fi in Bangalore.
Telangana Government is also interested in this technology for Hyderabad.
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Question 91 of 100
91. Question
2 pointsConsider the following about the Human Development Report (HDR).
- It is published by the World Bank.
- The report was first launched in 1990 by Mahbub ul Haq and Amartya Sen.
- The report is approved annually by the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA).
- “The Rise of the South” is the theme of the latest 2015 report.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
Correct
Solution: c)
Justification: Statement 1: It is published by the Human Development Report Office of the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
World Bank’s publishes the World Development Report (WDR), most recent one is titled ‘Digital Dividends’.
Statement 2: Its goal was to place people at the center of the development process in terms of economic debate, policy and advocacy. “People are the real wealth of a nation,” Haq wrote in the opening lines of the first report in 1990.
Statement 3: The United Nations General Assembly has formally recognized the Report as “an independent intellectual exercise” and “an important tool for raising awareness about human development around the world.”
Statement 4: It was the theme of 2013 report: The Rise of the South: Human Progress in a Diverse World.
2016 report title is “Work for Human Development”.
Q Source: December 2015 current affairs: http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/inequality-pulls-back-india-undps-human-development-report/article7988558.ece
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Justification: Statement 1: It is published by the Human Development Report Office of the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
World Bank’s publishes the World Development Report (WDR), most recent one is titled ‘Digital Dividends’.
Statement 2: Its goal was to place people at the center of the development process in terms of economic debate, policy and advocacy. “People are the real wealth of a nation,” Haq wrote in the opening lines of the first report in 1990.
Statement 3: The United Nations General Assembly has formally recognized the Report as “an independent intellectual exercise” and “an important tool for raising awareness about human development around the world.”
Statement 4: It was the theme of 2013 report: The Rise of the South: Human Progress in a Diverse World.
2016 report title is “Work for Human Development”.
Q Source: December 2015 current affairs: http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/inequality-pulls-back-india-undps-human-development-report/article7988558.ece
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Question 92 of 100
92. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following bodies has been nominated by the Government of India as the nodal body that will monitor, coordinate and ensure implementation of the Sustainable Development Goals (SHGs) across India?
Correct
Solution: c)
Learning: NITI Aayog has been nominated as the nodal body that will bring the 17 development goals into action across India.
The task at hand for NITI Aayog is not merely to periodically collect data on SDGs but to act proactively fructify the goals and targets not only quantitatively but also maintaining high standards of quality.
Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) has already undertaken a parallel exercise of interaction with the ministries to evolve indicators reflecting the SDG goals and targets.
The SDGs are a set of 17 desirables, ranging from ending poverty and hunger to sustainable industrialisation.
They were formulated as the ‘post-2015’ agenda, signifying the era after the year the Millennium Development Goals ran their course.
Q Source: http://niti.gov.in/
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Learning: NITI Aayog has been nominated as the nodal body that will bring the 17 development goals into action across India.
The task at hand for NITI Aayog is not merely to periodically collect data on SDGs but to act proactively fructify the goals and targets not only quantitatively but also maintaining high standards of quality.
Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) has already undertaken a parallel exercise of interaction with the ministries to evolve indicators reflecting the SDG goals and targets.
The SDGs are a set of 17 desirables, ranging from ending poverty and hunger to sustainable industrialisation.
They were formulated as the ‘post-2015’ agenda, signifying the era after the year the Millennium Development Goals ran their course.
Q Source: http://niti.gov.in/
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Question 93 of 100
93. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements.
- Australia Agreement deals with spread of chemical and biological weapons.
- Wassenaar Agreement deals with transfers of conventional arms and dual-use goods and technologies.
Which of the above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: a)
Justification: Statement 1: It is one of the four export control regimes. It is an informal group of countries (now joined by the European Commission) established in 1985 (after the use of chemical weapons by Iraq in 1984) to help member countries to identify those exports which need to be controlled so as not to contribute to the spread of chemical and biological weapons.
Statement 2: Please do not confuse Wassenaar Agreement with Wassenaar arrangement.
The Wassenaar Agreement was reached in 1982 between employers’ organisations and labour unions in the Netherlands to restrain wage growth in return for the adoption of policies to combat unemployment and inflation.
The Wassenaar Arrangement was established to contribute to regional and international security and stability by promoting transparency and greater responsibility in transfers of conventional arms and dual-use goods and technologies, thus preventing destabilizing accumulations. It is a multilateral export control regime (MECR).
Q Source: Frequently in news due to India’s bid for NSG
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Justification: Statement 1: It is one of the four export control regimes. It is an informal group of countries (now joined by the European Commission) established in 1985 (after the use of chemical weapons by Iraq in 1984) to help member countries to identify those exports which need to be controlled so as not to contribute to the spread of chemical and biological weapons.
Statement 2: Please do not confuse Wassenaar Agreement with Wassenaar arrangement.
The Wassenaar Agreement was reached in 1982 between employers’ organisations and labour unions in the Netherlands to restrain wage growth in return for the adoption of policies to combat unemployment and inflation.
The Wassenaar Arrangement was established to contribute to regional and international security and stability by promoting transparency and greater responsibility in transfers of conventional arms and dual-use goods and technologies, thus preventing destabilizing accumulations. It is a multilateral export control regime (MECR).
Q Source: Frequently in news due to India’s bid for NSG
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Question 94 of 100
94. Question
2 pointsPabna agrarian leagues was established in East Bengal in 1873 to
Correct
Solution: a)
Learning: In East Bengal the peasantry was oppressed by zamindars through frequent recourse to ejection, harassment, arbitrary enhancement of rent through ceases (abwabs) and use of force.
- The zamindars also tried to prevent them from acquiring the occupancy rights under the Act of 1859.
- In May 1873 an Agrarian League was formed in the Yusufzahi Pargana of Pabna district (East Bengal).
- Payments of enhanced rents were refused and the peasants fought the zamindars in the courts. Similar leagues were formed in the adjoining districts of Bengal.
- The main leaders of the Agrarian League were Ishan Chandra Roy, Shambu Pal and Khoodi Mullah. The discontent continued till 1885 when the Government by the Bengal Tenancy Act of 1885 enhanced the occupancy rights.
Q Source: Old NCERT: Modern History: Bipin Chandra
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Learning: In East Bengal the peasantry was oppressed by zamindars through frequent recourse to ejection, harassment, arbitrary enhancement of rent through ceases (abwabs) and use of force.
- The zamindars also tried to prevent them from acquiring the occupancy rights under the Act of 1859.
- In May 1873 an Agrarian League was formed in the Yusufzahi Pargana of Pabna district (East Bengal).
- Payments of enhanced rents were refused and the peasants fought the zamindars in the courts. Similar leagues were formed in the adjoining districts of Bengal.
- The main leaders of the Agrarian League were Ishan Chandra Roy, Shambu Pal and Khoodi Mullah. The discontent continued till 1885 when the Government by the Bengal Tenancy Act of 1885 enhanced the occupancy rights.
Q Source: Old NCERT: Modern History: Bipin Chandra
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Question 95 of 100
95. Question
2 points. India ratified the Convention on Supplementary Compensation for Nuclear Damage (CSC) at the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA). How is this development significant?
- It will absolve India’s financial liability to neighbour nations in case of the hazardous effects of a nuclear accident.
- It will encourage foreign nuclear equipment suppliers to trade with India who were earlier reluctant to do so.
Which of the above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: b)
Justification & Learning: The CSC is a convention that allows for increasing the compensation amount in the event of a nuclear incident through public funds pooled in by contracting parties based on their own installed nuclear capacities.
- It also sets parameters on a nuclear operator’s financial liability, time limits governing possible legal action, requires that nuclear operators maintain insurance or other financial security measures and provides for a single competent court to hear claims.
- It thus addresses the concerns of foreign nuclear equipment suppliers. International nuclear reactor makers have been reluctant to set up plants in India because of the 2010 domestic Civil Nuclear Liability Law – that makes equipment suppliers accountable for accidents and not the plant operators, as is the global norm.
- This will help spur the growth of nuclear energy in India.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Justification & Learning: The CSC is a convention that allows for increasing the compensation amount in the event of a nuclear incident through public funds pooled in by contracting parties based on their own installed nuclear capacities.
- It also sets parameters on a nuclear operator’s financial liability, time limits governing possible legal action, requires that nuclear operators maintain insurance or other financial security measures and provides for a single competent court to hear claims.
- It thus addresses the concerns of foreign nuclear equipment suppliers. International nuclear reactor makers have been reluctant to set up plants in India because of the 2010 domestic Civil Nuclear Liability Law – that makes equipment suppliers accountable for accidents and not the plant operators, as is the global norm.
- This will help spur the growth of nuclear energy in India.
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Question 96 of 100
96. Question
2 pointsCanary islands has been recently in news due to
Correct
Solution: d)
Justification: Option (a): Canary Islands (alongwith panama, cayman islands, British Virgin islands) is a tax haven often used by the rich to park their laundered money. It was in news due to Panama paper leaks.
Option (b): Please see http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/spanish-island-vying-for-100-clean-energy/article8500929.ece
Option (c): Scientists have discovered the most energetic light ever detected in the universe from the centre of a supernova known as ‘Crab pulsar’ which is situated 6,500 light years away from Earth.
The pulses were found by researchers working with the Major Atmospheric Gamma-ray Imaging Cherenkov (Magic) observatory in the Canary Islands, Spain.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Justification: Option (a): Canary Islands (alongwith panama, cayman islands, British Virgin islands) is a tax haven often used by the rich to park their laundered money. It was in news due to Panama paper leaks.
Option (b): Please see http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/spanish-island-vying-for-100-clean-energy/article8500929.ece
Option (c): Scientists have discovered the most energetic light ever detected in the universe from the centre of a supernova known as ‘Crab pulsar’ which is situated 6,500 light years away from Earth.
The pulses were found by researchers working with the Major Atmospheric Gamma-ray Imaging Cherenkov (Magic) observatory in the Canary Islands, Spain.
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Question 97 of 100
97. Question
2 pointsConsider the following about the National Institute of Public Cooperation and Child Development (NIPCCD) functioning under the aegis of the Ministry of Women and Child Development (MoWCD).
- It functions as an apex institution for training functionaries of the Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) programme.
- It is the nodal institution for imparting training Child Rights and Prevention of trafficking of women children for SAARC countries.
Which of the above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: c)
Justification: Statement 1: is a premier organisation devoted to promotion of voluntary action research, training and documentation in the overall domain of women and child development, being established in New Delhi in the year 1966. It also trains functionaries for ICPS.
Statement 2: Institute’s expertise and performance was recognized by UNICEF in 1985 when it awarded the Maurice Pate Award for its outstanding contribution in the field of Child Development.
Q Source: http://wcd.nic.in/ – Associated organizations
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Justification: Statement 1: is a premier organisation devoted to promotion of voluntary action research, training and documentation in the overall domain of women and child development, being established in New Delhi in the year 1966. It also trains functionaries for ICPS.
Statement 2: Institute’s expertise and performance was recognized by UNICEF in 1985 when it awarded the Maurice Pate Award for its outstanding contribution in the field of Child Development.
Q Source: http://wcd.nic.in/ – Associated organizations
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Question 98 of 100
98. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following is/are indicators of climate change on earth?
- Shrinking of glacier and Sea level change
- Temperature measurements of earth
- Cloud cover and precipitation
- Change in the type, distribution and coverage of vegetation
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
Correct
Solution: d)
Justification: Statement 1 and 2: As temperatures warm, glaciers retreat unless snow precipitation increases to make up for the additional melt; the converse is also true; causing sea level to rise. Sea level also rises due to global warming, which is another indicator of climate change.
Statement 3: Climatological temperatures substantially affect cloud cover and precipitation.
Statement 4: Some changes in climate may result in increased precipitation and warmth, resulting in improved plant growth and the subsequent sequestration of airborne CO2. A gradual increase in warmth in a region will lead to earlier flowering and fruiting times, driving a change in the timing of life cycles of dependent organisms.
Q Source: Environment concepts
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Justification: Statement 1 and 2: As temperatures warm, glaciers retreat unless snow precipitation increases to make up for the additional melt; the converse is also true; causing sea level to rise. Sea level also rises due to global warming, which is another indicator of climate change.
Statement 3: Climatological temperatures substantially affect cloud cover and precipitation.
Statement 4: Some changes in climate may result in increased precipitation and warmth, resulting in improved plant growth and the subsequent sequestration of airborne CO2. A gradual increase in warmth in a region will lead to earlier flowering and fruiting times, driving a change in the timing of life cycles of dependent organisms.
Q Source: Environment concepts
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Question 99 of 100
99. Question
2 pointsThe Amar-nayaka system was a salient feature of the political organisation of Vijaynagar. Amara nayaka was a
Correct
Solution: a)
Learning: In the opinion of some historians there is every likelihood that several features of this system had been derived from the lqta system of the Delhi Sultanate.
- Amara nayaka was a military officer or chief who had a specified number of troops under his control. These nayakas possessed revenue-rights over land or territory known as amaram (amara-makara or amaramaha).
- The area of land thus alienated under the tenure was about 3/4 in the Tamil country and also in the Vijaynagar empire.
- They collected taxes and other dues from peasants, crallspersons and traders.
- A part of the revenue was retained by them for their personal use and for maintaining a stipulated contingent of horses and elephants.
- Giving gills to temples, repair and building of tanks, reclamation of wasteland etc. were the main obligations and activities of the amaranayakas.
Q Source: Improvisation: NCERT 12th: Themes in Indian History-II
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Learning: In the opinion of some historians there is every likelihood that several features of this system had been derived from the lqta system of the Delhi Sultanate.
- Amara nayaka was a military officer or chief who had a specified number of troops under his control. These nayakas possessed revenue-rights over land or territory known as amaram (amara-makara or amaramaha).
- The area of land thus alienated under the tenure was about 3/4 in the Tamil country and also in the Vijaynagar empire.
- They collected taxes and other dues from peasants, crallspersons and traders.
- A part of the revenue was retained by them for their personal use and for maintaining a stipulated contingent of horses and elephants.
- Giving gills to temples, repair and building of tanks, reclamation of wasteland etc. were the main obligations and activities of the amaranayakas.
Q Source: Improvisation: NCERT 12th: Themes in Indian History-II
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Question 100 of 100
100. Question
2 pointsThe main point(s) outlined in the British Prime Minister Clement Attlee’s statement, 1947 was/were
- The British would relinquish power only to a Central government and rejected the idea of autonomous provincial governments.
- Even after India’s independence, the princely states would continue to remain a part of British Empire.
- The British would not transfer power to Indians if the modalities of the framing of constitution are not arrived at by consensus.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
Correct
Solution: d)
Justification: Statement 1: He said the British would relinquish power either to some form of central government or in some areas to the existing provincial governments if the constituent assembly formed was not fully representative, i.e. if the Muslim majority provinces did not join.
Statement 2: British powers and obligations with respect to them would lapse but they would not be transferred to any successor government.
Statement 3: Clement Attlee made the historic announcement regarding the British Government’s “definite intention to take necessary steps to effect the transfer of power to responsible Indian hands by a date not later than June 1948.” It was unconditional transfer of power, so 3 is wrong.
Q Source: Old NCERT: Modern History: Bipin Chandra
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Justification: Statement 1: He said the British would relinquish power either to some form of central government or in some areas to the existing provincial governments if the constituent assembly formed was not fully representative, i.e. if the Muslim majority provinces did not join.
Statement 2: British powers and obligations with respect to them would lapse but they would not be transferred to any successor government.
Statement 3: Clement Attlee made the historic announcement regarding the British Government’s “definite intention to take necessary steps to effect the transfer of power to responsible Indian hands by a date not later than June 1948.” It was unconditional transfer of power, so 3 is wrong.
Q Source: Old NCERT: Modern History: Bipin Chandra