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Welcome to Insights UPSC Preliminary Exam – 2014 Mock Test (Paper – 1). This paper contains 100 questions each carrying 2 marks.
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Question 1 of 100
1. Question
2 pointsWith reference to the Sulaiman and Kirthar hills, consider the following statements
- These hills contain areas where earliest evidence of wheat and barley cultivation is found
- Sulaiman Range is located in Iran whereas Kirthar hills are located in Afghanistan and Pakistan border
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: a)
Kirthar Mountains are a Mountain Range located in Balochistan and Sindh provinces of Pakistan.
The Sulaimanare a major geological feature of eastern and southeastern Afghanistan (Zabul, most of LoyaPaktiaand northeastern Kandahar), and South Waziristan, most of northern Balochistan Province and some of southwestern PunjabProvince of Pakistan.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Kirthar Mountains are a Mountain Range located in Balochistan and Sindh provinces of Pakistan.
The Sulaimanare a major geological feature of eastern and southeastern Afghanistan (Zabul, most of LoyaPaktiaand northeastern Kandahar), and South Waziristan, most of northern Balochistan Province and some of southwestern PunjabProvince of Pakistan.
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Question 2 of 100
2. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements
- The average height of Shiwalik ranges is 2000 to 3500 metres
- Shiwalik mountain range is the youngest of the Himalayan Ranges
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: b)
Though only 10 miles (16 km) wide in places, the Shiwalik range has an average elevation of 3,000 to 4,000 feet (900 to 1,200 metres). It rises abruptly from the plain of the Indus and Ganges (Ganga) rivers (south) and parallels the main range of the Himalayas(north), from which it is separated by valleys.
The Shivalik hills are the southernmost and geologically youngest east-west mountain chain of the Himalayas.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Though only 10 miles (16 km) wide in places, the Shiwalik range has an average elevation of 3,000 to 4,000 feet (900 to 1,200 metres). It rises abruptly from the plain of the Indus and Ganges (Ganga) rivers (south) and parallels the main range of the Himalayas(north), from which it is separated by valleys.
The Shivalik hills are the southernmost and geologically youngest east-west mountain chain of the Himalayas.
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Question 3 of 100
3. Question
2 pointsSandstone which was used as building material in ancient times, is a
Correct
Solution: b)
Sandstone is a sedimentary rock composed mainly of sand-sized minerals or rock grains. Sandstone has been used for domestic construction and housewares since prehistoric times, and continues to be used.
Sandstone was a popular building material from ancient times. It is relatively soft, making it easy to carve. It has been widely used around the world in constructing temples, homes, and other buildings. It has also been used for artistic purposes to create ornamental fountains and statues.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Sandstone is a sedimentary rock composed mainly of sand-sized minerals or rock grains. Sandstone has been used for domestic construction and housewares since prehistoric times, and continues to be used.
Sandstone was a popular building material from ancient times. It is relatively soft, making it easy to carve. It has been widely used around the world in constructing temples, homes, and other buildings. It has also been used for artistic purposes to create ornamental fountains and statues.
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Question 4 of 100
4. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following sites in India belongs to Neolithic Culture?
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- DaojaliHalding
- Chirand
- Hallur
Choose the correct answer using codes below
Correct
Solution: d)
The excavations at Hallur have revealed two periods of occupation, Period I: Neolithic-Chalcolithic and Period II: An overlapping period between Neolithic-Chalcolithic and early Iron Age.
Chirand is a stratified Neolithic, Chalcolithic, and Iron Age settlement in the eastern Ganges Valley of Bihar in northern India.
DaojaliHalding is in Assam and is also a Neolithic site.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
The excavations at Hallur have revealed two periods of occupation, Period I: Neolithic-Chalcolithic and Period II: An overlapping period between Neolithic-Chalcolithic and early Iron Age.
Chirand is a stratified Neolithic, Chalcolithic, and Iron Age settlement in the eastern Ganges Valley of Bihar in northern India.
DaojaliHalding is in Assam and is also a Neolithic site.
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Question 5 of 100
5. Question
2 pointsWith reference to Brahmaputra river, consider the following statements
- The river is prone to catastrophic flooding in spring when the Himalayan snows melt.
- The river has its origin in glaciers
- It is known as Padma in Bangladesh
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: a)
Brahmaputra is a trans-boundary river and one of the major rivers of Asia.With its origin in the Angsi Glacier, located on the northern side of the Himalayas in Burang County of Tibet as the YarlungTsangpo River,[3] it flows across southern Tibet to break through the Himalayas in great gorges (including the YarlungTsangpo Grand Canyon) and into Arunachal Pradesh (India) where it is known as Dihang or Siang.[4] It flows southwest through the Assam Valley as Brahmaputra and south through Bangladesh as the Jamuna (not to be mistaken with Yamuna of India). In the vast Ganges Delta it merges with the Padma, the main distributary of the Ganges, then the Meghna, before emptying into the Bay of Bengal.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Brahmaputra is a trans-boundary river and one of the major rivers of Asia.With its origin in the Angsi Glacier, located on the northern side of the Himalayas in Burang County of Tibet as the YarlungTsangpo River,[3] it flows across southern Tibet to break through the Himalayas in great gorges (including the YarlungTsangpo Grand Canyon) and into Arunachal Pradesh (India) where it is known as Dihang or Siang.[4] It flows southwest through the Assam Valley as Brahmaputra and south through Bangladesh as the Jamuna (not to be mistaken with Yamuna of India). In the vast Ganges Delta it merges with the Padma, the main distributary of the Ganges, then the Meghna, before emptying into the Bay of Bengal.
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Question 6 of 100
6. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following statements is true about Gravity dams
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Question 7 of 100
7. Question
2 pointsPressure flaking was one of the techniques used by ancient humans to make stone tools. Which of the following sentences describes pressure flaking aptly?
Correct
Solution: c)
Stone tools were probably made using two
different techniques:
1. The first is called stone on stone. Here, thepebble from which the tool was to be made (alsocalled the core) was held in one hand. Anotherstone, which was used as a hammer was held inthe other hand. The second stone was used tostrike off flakes from the first, till the requiredshape was obtained.
2. Pressure flaking: Here the core was placedon a firm surface. The hammer stone was usedon a piece of bone or stone that was placed onthe core, to remove flakes that could be shapedinto tools.
http://www.cavemanchemistry.com/oldcave/projects/stone/press.html
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Stone tools were probably made using two
different techniques:
1. The first is called stone on stone. Here, thepebble from which the tool was to be made (alsocalled the core) was held in one hand. Anotherstone, which was used as a hammer was held inthe other hand. The second stone was used tostrike off flakes from the first, till the requiredshape was obtained.
2. Pressure flaking: Here the core was placedon a firm surface. The hammer stone was usedon a piece of bone or stone that was placed onthe core, to remove flakes that could be shapedinto tools.
http://www.cavemanchemistry.com/oldcave/projects/stone/press.html
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Question 8 of 100
8. Question
2 pointsWith reference to Annie Besant and her contribution to India’s struggle for Independence, consider the following statements
- Though she was closely associated with the Indian National Congress (INC), she was never made the President of INC
- She was American by nationality
- The aim of the Home Rule League which she started was to get India complete independence from the British
Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?
Correct
Solution: d)
She was British. She was made the president of the India National Congress in late 1917.
The All India Home Rule League was a national political organization founded in 1916 to lead the national demand for self-government, termed Home Rule, and to obtain the status of a Dominion within the British Empire as enjoyed by Australia, Canada, South Africa, New Zealand and Newfoundland at the time.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
She was British. She was made the president of the India National Congress in late 1917.
The All India Home Rule League was a national political organization founded in 1916 to lead the national demand for self-government, termed Home Rule, and to obtain the status of a Dominion within the British Empire as enjoyed by Australia, Canada, South Africa, New Zealand and Newfoundland at the time.
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Question 9 of 100
9. Question
2 pointsWith reference to Aravali ranges, consider the following statements
- They are oldest block mountains in India
- Just like Himalayas, these ranges are also growing thanks to plate movements
Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?
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Question 10 of 100
10. Question
2 pointsIn the context of practices related to the environment, what is ‘Green Washing’?
Correct
Solution: c)
Greenwashing is a form of spin in which green PR or green marketing is deceptively used to promote the perception that an organization’s products, aims or policies are environmentally friendly. Evidence that an organization is greenwashing often comes from pointing out the spending differences: when significantly more money or time has been spent advertising being “green” (that is, operating with consideration for the environment), than is actually spent on environmentally sound practices.
Greenwashing efforts can range from changing the name or label of a product to evoke the natural environment on a product that contains harmful chemicals to multimillion dollar advertising campaigns portraying highly polluting energy companies as eco-friendly.
While the practice is not new, it has increased significantly in these years.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Greenwashing is a form of spin in which green PR or green marketing is deceptively used to promote the perception that an organization’s products, aims or policies are environmentally friendly. Evidence that an organization is greenwashing often comes from pointing out the spending differences: when significantly more money or time has been spent advertising being “green” (that is, operating with consideration for the environment), than is actually spent on environmentally sound practices.
Greenwashing efforts can range from changing the name or label of a product to evoke the natural environment on a product that contains harmful chemicals to multimillion dollar advertising campaigns portraying highly polluting energy companies as eco-friendly.
While the practice is not new, it has increased significantly in these years.
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Question 11 of 100
11. Question
2 pointsAs per the Forest Survey of India, which of the following statements stand true while calculating the ‘Forest Cover’?
1. The forest cover reported includes both natural and man-made forests (plantations).
2. It encompasses all types of forest land irrespective of their ownership or legal status.
3. It includes vast swathes of ‘scrubs’.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
Correct
Solution: a)
The forest cover includes lands with a tree canopy density of 10% of more. Scrubs do not fit in the definition. It does include plantations. And, in fact, the increase in tree cover reported since 2011 is mainly because of increase in plantation cover.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
The forest cover includes lands with a tree canopy density of 10% of more. Scrubs do not fit in the definition. It does include plantations. And, in fact, the increase in tree cover reported since 2011 is mainly because of increase in plantation cover.
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Question 12 of 100
12. Question
2 points3. Ebola Virus outbreak is becoming widespread in West Africa. It also had the potential to spread across nations. Consider the following statements about this virus?
1. Ebola can be fatal to humans.
2. Several cases of Ebola outbreak have been reported recently in India too.
3. The virus is transmitted to people from wild animals and spreads in the human population through human-to-human transmission.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
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Question 13 of 100
13. Question
2 points4. Jatakas and Avadanas are Buddhist literatures. Which of the following underscores the fundamental difference between Jatakas and Avadanas?
Correct
Solution: a)
The Jatakas is a voluminous body of literature that belongs to India concerning the previous births (jati) of the Buddha.The Jātakamālā is also called Bodhisattva Avadānamālā, for Bodhisattva Avadāna is synonymous with Jātaka. The Jātakas are consequently nothing but Avadānas having the Bodhisattva for their hero. Consequently works like the Sūtrālaṁkāra and the Jātakamālā have much in common with the texts of the Avadāna literature. On the other hand numerous Jātakas are to be found in the collections of Avadānas.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
The Jatakas is a voluminous body of literature that belongs to India concerning the previous births (jati) of the Buddha.The Jātakamālā is also called Bodhisattva Avadānamālā, for Bodhisattva Avadāna is synonymous with Jātaka. The Jātakas are consequently nothing but Avadānas having the Bodhisattva for their hero. Consequently works like the Sūtrālaṁkāra and the Jātakamālā have much in common with the texts of the Avadāna literature. On the other hand numerous Jātakas are to be found in the collections of Avadānas.
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Question 14 of 100
14. Question
2 points5. Consider the following statements about the recent National Youth policy 2014:
1. The National youth policy 2014 defines youth to be in the age group of 15-29.
2. The National youth policy 2014 considers the youth to be a homogenous group who have similar needs and aspirations.
3. It envisages sports as a way of life.
Which of these statements is/are true?
Correct
Solution: c)
From the National Youth Policy document – “United Nations defines ‘youth’ as persons between 15 and 24 years of age. In the National Youth Policy-2003, ‘youth’ was defined a person of age between 13-35 years, but in the current Policy Document, the youth age-group is defined as 15-29 years with a view to have a more focused approach, as far as various policy interventions are concerned. However, it needs to be recognised that all young persons within this age-group are unlikely to be a homogeneous group. Different segments of the Youth would have different needs and concerns, which need to be addressed. It divides youth in separate groups with diverse needs and aspirations.”
Incorrect
Solution: c)
From the National Youth Policy document – “United Nations defines ‘youth’ as persons between 15 and 24 years of age. In the National Youth Policy-2003, ‘youth’ was defined a person of age between 13-35 years, but in the current Policy Document, the youth age-group is defined as 15-29 years with a view to have a more focused approach, as far as various policy interventions are concerned. However, it needs to be recognised that all young persons within this age-group are unlikely to be a homogeneous group. Different segments of the Youth would have different needs and concerns, which need to be addressed. It divides youth in separate groups with diverse needs and aspirations.”
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Question 15 of 100
15. Question
2 points6. Several committees had been setup by the government mainly concerning the estimation of poverty – Rangarajan committee on the Estimation of Poverty being one of them. How is/are the recommendations of this panel different from that its predecessor – Tendulkar Committee?
1. Tendulkar committee did not incorporate private health and education expenditures in the estimation of poverty line; the Rangarajan committee incorporated the same.
2. Rangarajan committee treats rural and urban ‘consumption baskets’ to be different; the Tendulkar committee treated rural and urban baskets to be the same.
Which of these is/are true?
Correct
Solution: b)
The Tendulkar Committee recommended four major changes from earlier approaches: (i) a shift away from calorie consumption based poverty estimation; (ii) a uniform poverty line basket (PLB) across rural and urban India; (iii) a change in the price adjustment procedure to correct spatial and temporal issues with price adjustment; and (iv) incorporation of private expenditure on health and education while estimating poverty.
And, the following are excerpts from an interview given by Mr. Rangarajan –
“We differed from the Tendulkar committee in two or three ways. One, we included not only calories, but also fat and proteins. Second, we had a minimum basket separately for rural and urban areas. The Tendulkar committee had only one basket and the difference between rural and urban areas came only because of the price differences. Thirdly, I think for the first time, certain normative requirements with respect to non-food consumption expenditures were introduced. It is, of course, very difficult, but we felt that at least for the four categories that I have mentioned earlier (adequate nourishment, clothing, house rent, conveyance and education), we should impose certain minimum expenditures or norms which should be followed. So all this resulted in our poverty line being higher than the poverty line which was indicated by the Tendulkar committee.”
Incorrect
Solution: b)
The Tendulkar Committee recommended four major changes from earlier approaches: (i) a shift away from calorie consumption based poverty estimation; (ii) a uniform poverty line basket (PLB) across rural and urban India; (iii) a change in the price adjustment procedure to correct spatial and temporal issues with price adjustment; and (iv) incorporation of private expenditure on health and education while estimating poverty.
And, the following are excerpts from an interview given by Mr. Rangarajan –
“We differed from the Tendulkar committee in two or three ways. One, we included not only calories, but also fat and proteins. Second, we had a minimum basket separately for rural and urban areas. The Tendulkar committee had only one basket and the difference between rural and urban areas came only because of the price differences. Thirdly, I think for the first time, certain normative requirements with respect to non-food consumption expenditures were introduced. It is, of course, very difficult, but we felt that at least for the four categories that I have mentioned earlier (adequate nourishment, clothing, house rent, conveyance and education), we should impose certain minimum expenditures or norms which should be followed. So all this resulted in our poverty line being higher than the poverty line which was indicated by the Tendulkar committee.”
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Question 16 of 100
16. Question
2 points7. The two truths doctrine is a central concept in the Vajrayana path of practice and is the philosophical basis for its methods. What are these two truths respectively?
Correct
Solution: a)
Vajrayana is firmly grounded in Mahayana-philosophy, especially Madhyamaka.
Vajrayana subscribes to the two truths doctrine of conventional and ultimate truths, which is present in all Buddhist tenet systems. The two truths doctrine is a central concept in the Vajrayana path of practice and is the philosophical basis for its methods. The two truths identifies conventional a.k.a. relative, and absolute a.k.a. nirvana. Conventional truth is the truth of consensus reality, common-sense notions of what does and does not exist. Ultimate truth is reality as viewed by an awakened, or enlightened mind.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Vajrayana is firmly grounded in Mahayana-philosophy, especially Madhyamaka.
Vajrayana subscribes to the two truths doctrine of conventional and ultimate truths, which is present in all Buddhist tenet systems. The two truths doctrine is a central concept in the Vajrayana path of practice and is the philosophical basis for its methods. The two truths identifies conventional a.k.a. relative, and absolute a.k.a. nirvana. Conventional truth is the truth of consensus reality, common-sense notions of what does and does not exist. Ultimate truth is reality as viewed by an awakened, or enlightened mind.
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Question 17 of 100
17. Question
2 points8. The consumers enjoy certain rights in India to protect them from exploitation. Which of the following can be considered as the cases of “unfair trade practices” against which the consumer has the Right to Seek Redressal under the consumer courts?
- The goods or services purchased by a person or agreed to be purchased by a person has one or more defects or deficiencies in any respect.
2. If price charged for the product/service is more than what is legally provided for or what was agreed upon.
3. If the product described is not of the same quality or grade as promised by the seller.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
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Question 18 of 100
18. Question
2 points9. Miners still use canaries (birds) to detect the presence of a deadly gas in underground coal mines. Which gas is this?
Correct
Solution: b)
Some miners still use canaries to detect the presence of deadly carbon monoxide in underground mines. Miners collapse and often die even if small quantities of the highly poisonous CO are present in the air. When lowered into mines with CO presence, the birds show distress symptoms such as ruffling of feathers, pronounced chirping and loss of life. These reactions occur even if 0.15 per cent of CO is present in the air. If the content is 0.3 per cent the bird shows immediate distress and falls off its perch in two to three minutes. A cage of birds is a good indicator in air containing more than 0.15 per cent CO.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Some miners still use canaries to detect the presence of deadly carbon monoxide in underground mines. Miners collapse and often die even if small quantities of the highly poisonous CO are present in the air. When lowered into mines with CO presence, the birds show distress symptoms such as ruffling of feathers, pronounced chirping and loss of life. These reactions occur even if 0.15 per cent of CO is present in the air. If the content is 0.3 per cent the bird shows immediate distress and falls off its perch in two to three minutes. A cage of birds is a good indicator in air containing more than 0.15 per cent CO.
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Question 19 of 100
19. Question
2 points10. Provision of Urban Amenities in Rural Areas (PURA) is a Central Sector scheme for rural development. Consider the following statements about it:
1. It envisages the uses of Public Private Partnerships (PPP) for rural development.
2. The local executive bodies like the Gram Panchayat can undertake and execute projects under the scheme.
3. The development of rural markets and village linked tourism can be taken up under the scheme.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
Correct
Solution: d)
The objectives of PURA are proposed to be achieved under the framework of Public Private Partnership between Gram Panchayats and private sector partner with active state government support. Core funding shall be sourced from the Central Sector scheme of PURA and complemented by additional support through convergence of different Central Government schemes. The private sector shall also bring into the project its share of investment besides operational expertise. The scheme would be implemented and managed by the private sector on considerations of economic viability but designed in a manner whereby it is fully aligned with the overall objective of rural development.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
The objectives of PURA are proposed to be achieved under the framework of Public Private Partnership between Gram Panchayats and private sector partner with active state government support. Core funding shall be sourced from the Central Sector scheme of PURA and complemented by additional support through convergence of different Central Government schemes. The private sector shall also bring into the project its share of investment besides operational expertise. The scheme would be implemented and managed by the private sector on considerations of economic viability but designed in a manner whereby it is fully aligned with the overall objective of rural development.
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Question 20 of 100
20. Question
2 points11. The National Judicial Appointments Commission Bill has been passed by both the houses of the Parliament. The Bill replaces the collegiums system with a commission for the appointment of judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts. Who among the following will be the members of this commission?
1. Prime Minister
2. Leader of opposition of Lok Sabha
3. Chief Justice of India
4. Two senior judges of the Supreme Court
5. Union Law Minister
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
Correct
Solution: d)
The Bill proposes that the Chief Justice of India will head a six-member National Judicial Appointments Commission, other members of which would be the law minister, two senior Supreme Court judges and two eminent people.
A collegium comprising the Prime Minister, the Chief Justice of India and the leader of the single largest party in the Lok Sabha will select the two eminent people.
One eminent person will be nominated from among the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, OBCs, minorities or women.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
The Bill proposes that the Chief Justice of India will head a six-member National Judicial Appointments Commission, other members of which would be the law minister, two senior Supreme Court judges and two eminent people.
A collegium comprising the Prime Minister, the Chief Justice of India and the leader of the single largest party in the Lok Sabha will select the two eminent people.
One eminent person will be nominated from among the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, OBCs, minorities or women.
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Question 21 of 100
21. Question
2 points12. Mahaparinibban refers to the :
Correct
Solution: a)
It refers to the death of Lord Buddha. First sermon by Buddha is called Dhammachakrapravartan. The enlightenment of the Buddha is yearly celebrated in many Buddhist countries. Bodhi (Enlightenment) Day is observed in many mainstream Mahayana traditions including the traditional Zen and Pureland Buddhist schools of China, Korea, Japan, and Vietnam. In Japanese Zen, it is also known as Rohatsu.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
It refers to the death of Lord Buddha. First sermon by Buddha is called Dhammachakrapravartan. The enlightenment of the Buddha is yearly celebrated in many Buddhist countries. Bodhi (Enlightenment) Day is observed in many mainstream Mahayana traditions including the traditional Zen and Pureland Buddhist schools of China, Korea, Japan, and Vietnam. In Japanese Zen, it is also known as Rohatsu.
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Question 22 of 100
22. Question
2 points13. Pictorial mosaic work using semi-precious stones found on walls, cenotaphs and marble jalis in the Taj Mahal is known as:
Correct
Solution: a)
Naqqar khana was a drum house from where ceremonial music was played over the gate in Mughal complexes. Intarsia is an Italian art form related to Peitra-dura.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Naqqar khana was a drum house from where ceremonial music was played over the gate in Mughal complexes. Intarsia is an Italian art form related to Peitra-dura.
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Question 23 of 100
23. Question
2 points14. In which of the following renewable energy sources is the highest capacity installed in India?
Correct
Solution: a)
Here is the breakup till May 2014:
Source Total Installed Capacity (MW) Wind Power 21,262.23 Solar Power (SPV) 2,647.00 Small Hydro Power 3,803.65 Biomass Power 1,365.20 Bagasse Cogeneration 2,512.88 Waste to Power 106.58 Total 31,833.01 Incorrect
Solution: a)
Here is the breakup till May 2014:
Source Total Installed Capacity (MW) Wind Power 21,262.23 Solar Power (SPV) 2,647.00 Small Hydro Power 3,803.65 Biomass Power 1,365.20 Bagasse Cogeneration 2,512.88 Waste to Power 106.58 Total 31,833.01 -
Question 24 of 100
24. Question
2 points15. Which of the following marks out the difference between strategic sale and minority sale of Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs)?
Correct
Solution: c)
Strategic Sale refers to the sale of 51% or more stake of a PSU to the private sector who bids the highest. The ownership of PSU is handed over to the private sector.
Minority Sale refers to the sale of less than 49% stake of a PSU to the private sector. The ownership of PSU still remains with the government as it holds 51% of stakes.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Strategic Sale refers to the sale of 51% or more stake of a PSU to the private sector who bids the highest. The ownership of PSU is handed over to the private sector.
Minority Sale refers to the sale of less than 49% stake of a PSU to the private sector. The ownership of PSU still remains with the government as it holds 51% of stakes.
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Question 25 of 100
25. Question
2 points16. Consider the following statements about marine upwelling zones:
1. Upwelling usually occurs in the open ocean and along coastlines.
2. It results in the sinking of nutrients from the surface to deeper waters.
3. Coral reefs population is high in these regions because of nutrient rich bottom waters.
Choose the correct statements from the codes below:
Correct
Solution: a)
Winds blowing across the ocean surface push water away. Water then rises up from beneath the surface to replace the water that was pushed away. This process is known as “upwelling.”
Upwelling occurs in the open ocean and along coastlines. The reverse process, called “downwelling,” also occurs when wind causes surface water to build up along a coastline and the surface water eventually sinks toward the bottom.
Water that rises to the surface as a result of upwelling is typically colder and is rich in nutrients. These nutrients “fertilize” surface waters, meaning that these surface waters often have high biological productivity i.e. more phtoplanktons etc.. Therefore, good fishing grounds typically are found where upwelling is common.
The three main drivers that work together to cause upwelling are wind, Coriolis effects, and Ekman transport (Ekman Transport is the net motion of fluid as the result of a balance between Coriolis and turbulent drag forces).
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Winds blowing across the ocean surface push water away. Water then rises up from beneath the surface to replace the water that was pushed away. This process is known as “upwelling.”
Upwelling occurs in the open ocean and along coastlines. The reverse process, called “downwelling,” also occurs when wind causes surface water to build up along a coastline and the surface water eventually sinks toward the bottom.
Water that rises to the surface as a result of upwelling is typically colder and is rich in nutrients. These nutrients “fertilize” surface waters, meaning that these surface waters often have high biological productivity i.e. more phtoplanktons etc.. Therefore, good fishing grounds typically are found where upwelling is common.
The three main drivers that work together to cause upwelling are wind, Coriolis effects, and Ekman transport (Ekman Transport is the net motion of fluid as the result of a balance between Coriolis and turbulent drag forces).
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Question 26 of 100
26. Question
2 points17. Public spending across different sectors in Education in India as a percentage of GDP is highest in which of the following?
Correct
Solution: a)
Total spending is the highest in elementary education and the per capita spending is highest in tertiary education i.e. higher and technical education sector.
To give an idea of only Central government spending ( not total public expenditure); spending on education was 3.3% of GDP in 2013-14. Out of this, more than 50% was spent on the elementary education sector.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Total spending is the highest in elementary education and the per capita spending is highest in tertiary education i.e. higher and technical education sector.
To give an idea of only Central government spending ( not total public expenditure); spending on education was 3.3% of GDP in 2013-14. Out of this, more than 50% was spent on the elementary education sector.
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Question 27 of 100
27. Question
2 points18. What is ‘golden revolution’ related to?
Correct
Solution: a)
List of All Revolutions:
• Black Revolution – Petroleum Production
• Blue Revolution – Fish Production
• Brown Revolution – Leather/non-conventional(India)/Cocoa production
• Golden Fibre Revolution – Jute Production
• Golden Revolution – Fruits/Overall Horticulture development/Honey Production
• Green Revolution – Food grains
• Grey Revolution – Fertilizer
• Pink Revolution – Meat Production – some also refer it to prawns/onion/pharmaceuticals production
• Round Revolution – Potato
• Silver Fiber Revolution – Cotton
• Silver Revolution – Egg/Poultry Production
• White Revolution (In India: Operation Flood) – Milk/Dairy production
• Yellow Revolution – Oil Seeds productionIncorrect
Solution: a)
List of All Revolutions:
• Black Revolution – Petroleum Production
• Blue Revolution – Fish Production
• Brown Revolution – Leather/non-conventional(India)/Cocoa production
• Golden Fibre Revolution – Jute Production
• Golden Revolution – Fruits/Overall Horticulture development/Honey Production
• Green Revolution – Food grains
• Grey Revolution – Fertilizer
• Pink Revolution – Meat Production – some also refer it to prawns/onion/pharmaceuticals production
• Round Revolution – Potato
• Silver Fiber Revolution – Cotton
• Silver Revolution – Egg/Poultry Production
• White Revolution (In India: Operation Flood) – Milk/Dairy production
• Yellow Revolution – Oil Seeds production -
Question 28 of 100
28. Question
2 points19. The Union government is presently examining proposals to amend some labour laws. Labour laws mediate the relationship between workers, employers, trade unions and the government. Which of the following is/are considered to be labour laws in India?
1. Apprentices Act, 1961
2. Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
3. The Employment Exchanges (Compulsory Notification of Vacancies) Act, 1959
Choose the correct statements from the codes below:
Correct
Solution: d)
UPSC keeps asking questions related to laws concerning contemporary issues.
Here is the list of some important labour laws in India:
a) Apprentices Act, 1961 29
b) Employees State Insurance Act, 1948 36
c) Employees Provident Fund And Misc. Provisions Act, 1952 51
d) The Employment Exchanges (Compulsory Notification of Vacancies) Act, 1959
e) Factories Act, 1948 58
f) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 74
g) Labour Laws (Exemption From Furnishing Returns & Maintaining Registers By Certain Establishments) Act, 1988
h) Payment of Bonus Act, 1965 83
i) Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972 87
j) Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923
Incorrect
Solution: d)
UPSC keeps asking questions related to laws concerning contemporary issues.
Here is the list of some important labour laws in India:
a) Apprentices Act, 1961 29
b) Employees State Insurance Act, 1948 36
c) Employees Provident Fund And Misc. Provisions Act, 1952 51
d) The Employment Exchanges (Compulsory Notification of Vacancies) Act, 1959
e) Factories Act, 1948 58
f) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 74
g) Labour Laws (Exemption From Furnishing Returns & Maintaining Registers By Certain Establishments) Act, 1988
h) Payment of Bonus Act, 1965 83
i) Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972 87
j) Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923
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Question 29 of 100
29. Question
2 points20. Ultra-violet radiation will inhibit the growth of
1. Phytoplanktons
2. Zooplanktons
3. Coral reefs
Choose the correct statements from the codes below:
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Question 30 of 100
30. Question
2 points21. Concerning air and water pollution, which of the following genre of activities are undertaken by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)?
1. Research
2. Regulation
3. Awareness generation
Choose the correct statements from the codes below:
Correct
Solution: d)
In order to address two major environmental concerns in India, viz. water and air pollution, the government set up the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) in 1974. This was followed by states establishing their own state level boards to address all the environmental concerns.
They investigate, collect and disseminate information relating to water, air and land pollution, lay down standards for sewage/trade effluent and emissions. These boards provide technical assistance to governments in promoting cleanliness of streams and wells by prevention, control and abatement of water pollution, and improve the quality of air and to prevent, control or abate air pollution in the country.
These boards also carry out and sponsor investigation and research relating to problems of water and air pollution and for their prevention, control or abatement. They also organise, through mass media, a comprehensive mass awareness programme for the same. The PCBs prepare manuals, codes and guidelines relating to treatment and disposal of sewage and trade effluents.
They assess the air quality through regulation of industries. In fact, state boards, through their district level officials, periodically inspect every industry under their jurisdiction to assess the adequacy of treatment measures provided to treat the effluent and gaseous emissions. It also provides background air quality data needed for industrial siting and town planning.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
In order to address two major environmental concerns in India, viz. water and air pollution, the government set up the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) in 1974. This was followed by states establishing their own state level boards to address all the environmental concerns.
They investigate, collect and disseminate information relating to water, air and land pollution, lay down standards for sewage/trade effluent and emissions. These boards provide technical assistance to governments in promoting cleanliness of streams and wells by prevention, control and abatement of water pollution, and improve the quality of air and to prevent, control or abate air pollution in the country.
These boards also carry out and sponsor investigation and research relating to problems of water and air pollution and for their prevention, control or abatement. They also organise, through mass media, a comprehensive mass awareness programme for the same. The PCBs prepare manuals, codes and guidelines relating to treatment and disposal of sewage and trade effluents.
They assess the air quality through regulation of industries. In fact, state boards, through their district level officials, periodically inspect every industry under their jurisdiction to assess the adequacy of treatment measures provided to treat the effluent and gaseous emissions. It also provides background air quality data needed for industrial siting and town planning.
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Question 31 of 100
31. Question
2 points22. Breakfast cereals put in milk tend to clump together or cling to the sides of a bowl of milk. What causes it?
Correct
Solution: a)
Dubbed the Cheerios Effect by scientists, this clumping phenomenon applies to anything that floats, including fizzy soda bubbles and hair particles in water after a morning shave.
Surface tension makes the milk’s surface cave in slightly in the middle of the bowl. Because water molecules in the milk are attracted to glass, the milk’s surface curves upward around the bowl’s edge. For this reason, pieces of the cereal near the edge float upward along this curve, appearing as if they’re clinging to the edge.
Also because of surface tension, cereal floating in the middle of your bowl dents the milk’s surface, creating a dip in it. When two pieces of cereal touch, their two dents become one, and, resting in it, they stick together.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Dubbed the Cheerios Effect by scientists, this clumping phenomenon applies to anything that floats, including fizzy soda bubbles and hair particles in water after a morning shave.
Surface tension makes the milk’s surface cave in slightly in the middle of the bowl. Because water molecules in the milk are attracted to glass, the milk’s surface curves upward around the bowl’s edge. For this reason, pieces of the cereal near the edge float upward along this curve, appearing as if they’re clinging to the edge.
Also because of surface tension, cereal floating in the middle of your bowl dents the milk’s surface, creating a dip in it. When two pieces of cereal touch, their two dents become one, and, resting in it, they stick together.
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Question 32 of 100
32. Question
2 points23. Sometimes under very cold conditions when ice freezes/forms rapidly, spikes can be seen on its surface. Which of the following is the most appropriate explanation for this phenomenon?
Correct
Solution: c)
The short explanation is this: as the ice freezes fast under supercooled conditions, the surface can get covered except for a small hole. Water expands when it freezes. As freezing continues, the expanding ice under the surface forces the remaining water up through the hole and it freezes around the edge forming a hollow spike. Eventually, the whole thing freezes and the spike is left.
A slightly longer explanation: the form of the ice crystals depends on the cooling rate and hence on the degree of supercooling. Large supercooling favors sheets which rapidly cover the surface, with some sheets hanging down into the water like curtains. These crystallites tend to join at 60 degrees and leave triangular holes in the surface. Hence, spikes often have a triangular base. The sides of the spike are sometimes a continuation of pre-existing subsurface crystallites, and can extend from the surface at steep angles.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
The short explanation is this: as the ice freezes fast under supercooled conditions, the surface can get covered except for a small hole. Water expands when it freezes. As freezing continues, the expanding ice under the surface forces the remaining water up through the hole and it freezes around the edge forming a hollow spike. Eventually, the whole thing freezes and the spike is left.
A slightly longer explanation: the form of the ice crystals depends on the cooling rate and hence on the degree of supercooling. Large supercooling favors sheets which rapidly cover the surface, with some sheets hanging down into the water like curtains. These crystallites tend to join at 60 degrees and leave triangular holes in the surface. Hence, spikes often have a triangular base. The sides of the spike are sometimes a continuation of pre-existing subsurface crystallites, and can extend from the surface at steep angles.
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Question 33 of 100
33. Question
2 points24. Consider the following statements about the conversion in the states of water:
1. Hot water may freeze faster than cold water under similar conditions.
2. Water at high pressure freezes faster than water at low pressure.
3. In vacuum, liquid water will start boiling regardless of what the temperature is.
Which of these is/are true?
Correct
Solution: c)
Faster freezing of hot water seems counter-intuitive. But this phenomenon was first observed by Aristotle. It is explained based on several principles but a correct explanation has been elusive till date.
Air pressure certainly affects the freezing temperature. The higher the pressure, the lower the freezing temperature. Since it will take water longer to reach the lower temperature, it would freeze more slowly.
There are two ways that the higher pressure lowers the freezing temperature.
One is direct. Ice occupies more volume than liquid water, so squeezing harder favors the liquid over the ice state.
The second is less direct. At higher pressure, more air (nitrogen and oxygen molecules) goes into solution. The more molecules dissolved in the water, the lower the freezing point. That’s discussed more in other answers here on the freezing of saltwater.
There are two other points to worry about here. One is that at higher pressures, the air will have a higher heat capacity per unit volume than at lower pressures, and so flowing high-pressure cold air past the water can freeze the water faster. If the high-pressure air does not flow (that is, if you pressurize a closed container) then this should have almost no effect.
Placing water in a vacuum: Liquid water will boil if its vapor pressure is greater than the ambient air pressure. In a vacuum, liquid water will start to boil regardless of what the temperature is. Turning water from a liquid to a vapor takes 540 calories per gram, and this heat is taken from the liquid water, cooling it off. In a vacuum, the water will continue to boil until so much heat has been removed that the remaining water will freeze. This is a very quick way to freeze water.
If you put the water in a sealed container with a vacuum, then the water will only boil for a very short time until the container is full of water vapor (no vacuum any more). If you want to freeze the water by boiling it, you have to constantly pump away the water vapor with a vacuum pump.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Faster freezing of hot water seems counter-intuitive. But this phenomenon was first observed by Aristotle. It is explained based on several principles but a correct explanation has been elusive till date.
Air pressure certainly affects the freezing temperature. The higher the pressure, the lower the freezing temperature. Since it will take water longer to reach the lower temperature, it would freeze more slowly.
There are two ways that the higher pressure lowers the freezing temperature.
One is direct. Ice occupies more volume than liquid water, so squeezing harder favors the liquid over the ice state.
The second is less direct. At higher pressure, more air (nitrogen and oxygen molecules) goes into solution. The more molecules dissolved in the water, the lower the freezing point. That’s discussed more in other answers here on the freezing of saltwater.
There are two other points to worry about here. One is that at higher pressures, the air will have a higher heat capacity per unit volume than at lower pressures, and so flowing high-pressure cold air past the water can freeze the water faster. If the high-pressure air does not flow (that is, if you pressurize a closed container) then this should have almost no effect.
Placing water in a vacuum: Liquid water will boil if its vapor pressure is greater than the ambient air pressure. In a vacuum, liquid water will start to boil regardless of what the temperature is. Turning water from a liquid to a vapor takes 540 calories per gram, and this heat is taken from the liquid water, cooling it off. In a vacuum, the water will continue to boil until so much heat has been removed that the remaining water will freeze. This is a very quick way to freeze water.
If you put the water in a sealed container with a vacuum, then the water will only boil for a very short time until the container is full of water vapor (no vacuum any more). If you want to freeze the water by boiling it, you have to constantly pump away the water vapor with a vacuum pump.
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Question 34 of 100
34. Question
2 points25. A ‘Green building’ is a building which
Correct
Solution: d)
A green building is one which uses less water, optimises energy efficiency, conserves natural resources, generates less waste and provides healthier spaces for occupants, as compared to a conventional building.
Indian Green Building Council, formed by Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) in the year 2001, is continuously striving towards wider adoption of eco-friendly / green building concepts in the Indian Industry.
The Indian Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) had launched the Energy Conservation Building Code (ECBC). The code is set for energy efficiency standards for design and construction with any building of minimum conditioned area of 1000 Sq mts and a connected demand of power of 500 KW or 600 KVA.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
A green building is one which uses less water, optimises energy efficiency, conserves natural resources, generates less waste and provides healthier spaces for occupants, as compared to a conventional building.
Indian Green Building Council, formed by Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) in the year 2001, is continuously striving towards wider adoption of eco-friendly / green building concepts in the Indian Industry.
The Indian Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) had launched the Energy Conservation Building Code (ECBC). The code is set for energy efficiency standards for design and construction with any building of minimum conditioned area of 1000 Sq mts and a connected demand of power of 500 KW or 600 KVA.
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Question 35 of 100
35. Question
2 points26. What is carrying capacity in terms of ecology?
Correct
Solution: a)
It is the measure of habitat to indefinitely sustain a population at a particular density. A more technical definition for carrying capacity is the largest size of a density-dependent population for which the population growth rate is zero. Hence, below carrying capacity, populations will tend to increase, while they will decrease above carrying capacity.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
It is the measure of habitat to indefinitely sustain a population at a particular density. A more technical definition for carrying capacity is the largest size of a density-dependent population for which the population growth rate is zero. Hence, below carrying capacity, populations will tend to increase, while they will decrease above carrying capacity.
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Question 36 of 100
36. Question
2 points27. Various items enter in the current account of the balance of payments, some of which are not visible goods. These are called invisibles. Which among the following are invisibles?
1. Remittances
2. Trade in services
3. Government grants and interests, profits and dividends on investment abroad
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
Correct
Solution: d)
Incorrect
Solution: d)
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Question 37 of 100
37. Question
2 points28. Consider the following statements about Special Economic Zones (SEZs):
1. It is a geographical region that has economic laws different from a country’s typical economic laws.
2. It is usually located within the host country’s territorial boundaries.
3. Attracting foreign direct investment is one of the objectives behind establishing SEZs.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
Correct
Solution: d)
Special Economic Zone (SEZ) : It is a geographical region that has economic laws different from a country’s typical economic laws. Usually the goal is to increase foreign investment. Special Economic Zones have been established in several countries, including the People’s Republic of China, India, Jordan, Poland, Kazakhstan, the Philippines and Russia.
Broadly, SEZs are located within a country’s national borders. The aims of the zones include: increased trade, increased investment, job creation and effective administration. To encourage businesses to set up in the zone liberal policies are introduced. There policies typically regard investing, taxation, trading, quotas, customs and labour regulations. Additionally, companies may be offered tax holidays.
The creation of special economic zones by the host country may be motivated by the desire to attract foreign direct investment (FDI). The benefits a company gains by being in a Special Economic Zone may mean it can produce and trade goods at a globally competitive price. The operating definition of an economic zone is determined individually by each country.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Special Economic Zone (SEZ) : It is a geographical region that has economic laws different from a country’s typical economic laws. Usually the goal is to increase foreign investment. Special Economic Zones have been established in several countries, including the People’s Republic of China, India, Jordan, Poland, Kazakhstan, the Philippines and Russia.
Broadly, SEZs are located within a country’s national borders. The aims of the zones include: increased trade, increased investment, job creation and effective administration. To encourage businesses to set up in the zone liberal policies are introduced. There policies typically regard investing, taxation, trading, quotas, customs and labour regulations. Additionally, companies may be offered tax holidays.
The creation of special economic zones by the host country may be motivated by the desire to attract foreign direct investment (FDI). The benefits a company gains by being in a Special Economic Zone may mean it can produce and trade goods at a globally competitive price. The operating definition of an economic zone is determined individually by each country.
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Question 38 of 100
38. Question
2 points29. Consider the following statements about Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN) in connection with internet:
1. It controls content on the internet.
2. It is an autonomous agency of the federal government of the United States of America.
3. It helps co-ordinate how Internet Protocol (IP) addresses are supplied to avoid repetition or clashes.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
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Question 39 of 100
39. Question
2 points30. Consider the following statements about Geographical Indication (GI):
1. It is a sign used on certain goods that have a certain geographical origin with certain unique traits essentially attributed to the place of their origin.
2. It is covered under the Trade Related Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS).
3. In India, there is a legal provision for granting and safeguarding GI.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
Correct
Solution: d)
A GI tag ensures that no one other than the registered users ( or at least those residing inside the geographic territory) are allowed to use the popular product name. Darjeeling tea became the first GI tagged product in India in 2004-05. India enacted the GI of goods (registration and protection) Act, 1999 which is in force from 2003.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
A GI tag ensures that no one other than the registered users ( or at least those residing inside the geographic territory) are allowed to use the popular product name. Darjeeling tea became the first GI tagged product in India in 2004-05. India enacted the GI of goods (registration and protection) Act, 1999 which is in force from 2003.
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Question 40 of 100
40. Question
2 points31. How are second-generation bio-fuels ((SGBF) different from first generation bio-fuels (FGBF)?
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Question 41 of 100
41. Question
2 points32. Which of the following connotes ‘Gross capital formation’?
Correct
Solution: a)
A term used to describe net capital accumulation during an accounting period. Capital formation refers to net additions of capital stock such as equipment, buildings and other intermediate goods. A nation uses capital stock in combination with labour to provide services and produce goods; an increase in this capital stock is known as capital formation.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
A term used to describe net capital accumulation during an accounting period. Capital formation refers to net additions of capital stock such as equipment, buildings and other intermediate goods. A nation uses capital stock in combination with labour to provide services and produce goods; an increase in this capital stock is known as capital formation.
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Question 42 of 100
42. Question
2 points33. Consider the following matches as far as money supply in the Indian economy is concerned:
1. Aggregate Monetary resources (M3) – Broad money (M4) without deposits held in post office savings organization
2. Narrow money (M1) – Currency notes, coins and demand deposits held by public in commercial banks
3. Broad Money (M4) – Narrow Money (M1) with time deposits held by public in commercial banks and total deposits with post office savings organization
Which are correct matches?
Correct
Solution: d)
Self-explanatory.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Self-explanatory.
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Question 43 of 100
43. Question
2 points34. In macroeconomics, there is usually an annual trade off between
Correct
Solution: a)
Total production of final goods can thus be either in the form of consumption or investment. This implies that there is a trade-off. If an economy, produces more of consumer goods, it is producing less of capital goods and vice-versa.
Of the total output of final goods of an economy, if a larger share goes for production of capital goods, a smaller share is available for production of consumer goods.
For a detailed explanation refer to the chapter – National Income accounting 12th NCERT Macroeconomics.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Total production of final goods can thus be either in the form of consumption or investment. This implies that there is a trade-off. If an economy, produces more of consumer goods, it is producing less of capital goods and vice-versa.
Of the total output of final goods of an economy, if a larger share goes for production of capital goods, a smaller share is available for production of consumer goods.
For a detailed explanation refer to the chapter – National Income accounting 12th NCERT Macroeconomics.
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Question 44 of 100
44. Question
2 points35. GDP deflator is
Correct
Solution: a)
GDP deflator is used to calculate overall rise in prices alongwith the total production in the economy in an year. It does not capture the true rise in the GDP as it includes inflation too. GDP real calculates the GDP growth at constant prices.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
GDP deflator is used to calculate overall rise in prices alongwith the total production in the economy in an year. It does not capture the true rise in the GDP as it includes inflation too. GDP real calculates the GDP growth at constant prices.
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Question 45 of 100
45. Question
2 points36. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A):Legally speaking, checques can be refused as a mode of payment but currency generally can not be.
Reason (R): Demand deposits are not legal tenders unlike currency.
In the context of the statements above, which is true?
Correct
Solution; a)
The fiat money or currency that we carry has the legal backing of the RBI. Note that the note itself has no intrinsic value. It is the legal tender that the RBI has with you is of value.
The value of the currency notes and coins is derived from the guarantee provided by the issuing authority of these items. Every currency note bears on its face a promise from the Governor of RBI that if someone produces the note to RBI, or any other commercial bank, RBI will be responsible for giving the person purchasing power equal to the value printed on the note. The same is also true of coins. Currency notes and coins are therefore called fiat money. They do not have intrinsic value like a gold or silver coin. They are also called legal tenders as they cannot be refused by any citizen of the country for settlement of any kind of transaction. Cheques drawn on savings or current accounts, however, can be refused by anyone as a mode of payment. Hence, demand deposits are not legal tenders.
Incorrect
Solution; a)
The fiat money or currency that we carry has the legal backing of the RBI. Note that the note itself has no intrinsic value. It is the legal tender that the RBI has with you is of value.
The value of the currency notes and coins is derived from the guarantee provided by the issuing authority of these items. Every currency note bears on its face a promise from the Governor of RBI that if someone produces the note to RBI, or any other commercial bank, RBI will be responsible for giving the person purchasing power equal to the value printed on the note. The same is also true of coins. Currency notes and coins are therefore called fiat money. They do not have intrinsic value like a gold or silver coin. They are also called legal tenders as they cannot be refused by any citizen of the country for settlement of any kind of transaction. Cheques drawn on savings or current accounts, however, can be refused by anyone as a mode of payment. Hence, demand deposits are not legal tenders.
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Question 46 of 100
46. Question
2 points37. Which of the following forces the commercial banks in India to maintain a high reserve deposit ratio (RDR)?
1. High Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
2. High Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)
3. High Bank Rate
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
Correct
Solution: d)
High CRR and high SLR force the banks legally to maintain a high reserve deposit ratio.
Bank rate is the rate at which the commercial banks borrow money from RBI in times of liquidity crunch. If the bank rate is high banks will be de-incentivized to borrow from RBI. Hence, they will maintain high RDR.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
High CRR and high SLR force the banks legally to maintain a high reserve deposit ratio.
Bank rate is the rate at which the commercial banks borrow money from RBI in times of liquidity crunch. If the bank rate is high banks will be de-incentivized to borrow from RBI. Hence, they will maintain high RDR.
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Question 47 of 100
47. Question
2 points38. The increment in total money supply exceeds the amount of high powered money initially injected by RBI into the economy. This effect is known as
Correct
Solution: a)
Please refer to page 41-43 of 12th NCERT Macroeconomics to gain a detailed understanding of money multiplier.
In short, by successive cycles of borrowing, spending and depositing, banks and individuals create much more credit than the RBI initially injects in the economy.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Please refer to page 41-43 of 12th NCERT Macroeconomics to gain a detailed understanding of money multiplier.
In short, by successive cycles of borrowing, spending and depositing, banks and individuals create much more credit than the RBI initially injects in the economy.
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Question 48 of 100
48. Question
2 points39. Consider the following statements:
1. Fiscal deficit is always inflationary.
2. Fiscal deficit may increase in economic recession without a change in fiscal policy.
Which of these is/are true?
Correct
Solution: b)
Fiscal deficit usually injects money in the economy leading to enhanced demand. If this demand is not met with adequate supply, it will result in inflation. Otherwise, it will not be inflationary if kept in limits.
In a recession, there is a fall in production of goods and services in the economy. The earnings of the government therefore reduce due to a reduction in tax (corporate tax, excise duty) and non-tax revenue (from PSUs etc.). However, the expenditure side remains more or less the same. And, in fact the government may have to inject more money in form of a fiscal stimulus. This leads to widening of fiscal deficit.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Fiscal deficit usually injects money in the economy leading to enhanced demand. If this demand is not met with adequate supply, it will result in inflation. Otherwise, it will not be inflationary if kept in limits.
In a recession, there is a fall in production of goods and services in the economy. The earnings of the government therefore reduce due to a reduction in tax (corporate tax, excise duty) and non-tax revenue (from PSUs etc.). However, the expenditure side remains more or less the same. And, in fact the government may have to inject more money in form of a fiscal stimulus. This leads to widening of fiscal deficit.
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Question 49 of 100
49. Question
2 points40. If two currencies are at purchasing power parity, it means between them the
Correct
Solution: a)
REER and NEER measure the exchange rate in a basket of currencies. So they do not apply to two currencies individually.
Nominal exchange rate is what we usually know as the dollar-rupee, yen-rupee exchange rate.
Real exchange rate is different and takes into account the price levels in the two countries.
Explanation from NCERT: “If one wants to plan a trip to London, she needs to know how expensive British goods are relative to goods at home. The measure that captures this is the real exchange rate – the ratio of foreign to domestic prices, measured in the same currency. It is defined as
Real exchange rate = ePf/P
where P and Pf are the price levels here and abroad, respectively, and e is the rupee price of foreign exchange (the nominal exchange rate). The numerator expresses prices abroad measured in rupees, the denominator gives the domestic price level measured in rupees, so the real exchange rate measures prices abroad relative to those at home. If the real exchange rate is equal to one, currencies are at purchasing power parity. This means that goods cost the same in two countries when measured in the same currency.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
REER and NEER measure the exchange rate in a basket of currencies. So they do not apply to two currencies individually.
Nominal exchange rate is what we usually know as the dollar-rupee, yen-rupee exchange rate.
Real exchange rate is different and takes into account the price levels in the two countries.
Explanation from NCERT: “If one wants to plan a trip to London, she needs to know how expensive British goods are relative to goods at home. The measure that captures this is the real exchange rate – the ratio of foreign to domestic prices, measured in the same currency. It is defined as
Real exchange rate = ePf/P
where P and Pf are the price levels here and abroad, respectively, and e is the rupee price of foreign exchange (the nominal exchange rate). The numerator expresses prices abroad measured in rupees, the denominator gives the domestic price level measured in rupees, so the real exchange rate measures prices abroad relative to those at home. If the real exchange rate is equal to one, currencies are at purchasing power parity. This means that goods cost the same in two countries when measured in the same currency.
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Question 50 of 100
50. Question
2 points41. India economy has been suffering with twin deficits. Which of the following are known as ‘twin deficits’?
Correct
Solution: c)
Incorrect
Solution: c)
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Question 51 of 100
51. Question
2 points42. Which of the following may potentially affect nominal currency exchange rate between two economies?
1. Higher Inflation in the economy as compared to the other economy
2. Higher Interest rates in the economy as compared to other economies
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
Correct
Solution: c)
High inflation makes domestic products less competitive and thus causes a decline in exports. Besides, high inflation discourages foreign investment. These two combinedly widen the fiscal deficit and make its financing difficult. This leads to depreciation in the currency.
High interest rates, on the other hand, encourage foreign investors as they get high returns on their deposits. This helps finance CAD and thus in the appreciation of the currency.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
High inflation makes domestic products less competitive and thus causes a decline in exports. Besides, high inflation discourages foreign investment. These two combinedly widen the fiscal deficit and make its financing difficult. This leads to depreciation in the currency.
High interest rates, on the other hand, encourage foreign investors as they get high returns on their deposits. This helps finance CAD and thus in the appreciation of the currency.
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Question 52 of 100
52. Question
2 points43. India follows
Correct
Solution: b)
Without any formal international agreement, the world has moved on to what can be best described as a managed floating exchange rate system. It is a mixture of a flexible exchange rate system (the float part) and a fixed rate system (the managed part). Under this system, also called dirty floating, central banks intervene to buy and sell foreign currencies in an attempt to moderate exchange rate movements whenever they feel that such actions are appropriate. Official reserve transactions are, therefore, not equal to zero. India also follows this system.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Without any formal international agreement, the world has moved on to what can be best described as a managed floating exchange rate system. It is a mixture of a flexible exchange rate system (the float part) and a fixed rate system (the managed part). Under this system, also called dirty floating, central banks intervene to buy and sell foreign currencies in an attempt to moderate exchange rate movements whenever they feel that such actions are appropriate. Official reserve transactions are, therefore, not equal to zero. India also follows this system.
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Question 53 of 100
53. Question
2 points44. For a developing and externally independent (i.e. imports, exports and trade with global economy are negligible) economy, which of the following would give the best picture of economic strength?
Correct
Solution: a)
Consider this: Suppose Tanzania and US produce the same quantity of the same goods and services. Because of the high prices in the US, its GDP will be naturally more than Tanzania even though the total production is same. This would give a false picture of the economic strength of Tanzania.
Read the following. It will be clearer.
Market exchange rates are determined by the daily demand and supply of currencies in the international market, in turn determined mainly by things that are globally tradable, while many goods and services are never traded internationally.
Also, developing countries have relatively lower prices of these non-tradable goods and services. Hence, conversion of GDP into dollars at the market exchange price would give a lower value to the GDP of a developing country like India than is warranted. Hence, to make an apples to apples comparison, PPP exchange rates are calculated by comparing the prices of a similar basket of goods and services in different countries.
These rates are then used to determine the GDPs of different countries in PPP dollars. To see how much of a difference using PPP rates can make, consider this: In nominal dollars, China has only just overtaken Japan as the second largest economy in the world and is only a little more than one-third the size of US economy. India is ranked 12th and is just 10% of the US economy.
In PPP terms, China is more than double the size of Japan and about two-thirds the size of the US. India is ranked fourth just a little behind Japan and about one-fourth as big as the US economy.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Consider this: Suppose Tanzania and US produce the same quantity of the same goods and services. Because of the high prices in the US, its GDP will be naturally more than Tanzania even though the total production is same. This would give a false picture of the economic strength of Tanzania.
Read the following. It will be clearer.
Market exchange rates are determined by the daily demand and supply of currencies in the international market, in turn determined mainly by things that are globally tradable, while many goods and services are never traded internationally.
Also, developing countries have relatively lower prices of these non-tradable goods and services. Hence, conversion of GDP into dollars at the market exchange price would give a lower value to the GDP of a developing country like India than is warranted. Hence, to make an apples to apples comparison, PPP exchange rates are calculated by comparing the prices of a similar basket of goods and services in different countries.
These rates are then used to determine the GDPs of different countries in PPP dollars. To see how much of a difference using PPP rates can make, consider this: In nominal dollars, China has only just overtaken Japan as the second largest economy in the world and is only a little more than one-third the size of US economy. India is ranked 12th and is just 10% of the US economy.
In PPP terms, China is more than double the size of Japan and about two-thirds the size of the US. India is ranked fourth just a little behind Japan and about one-fourth as big as the US economy.
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Question 54 of 100
54. Question
2 points45. The Triffin dilemma is a
Correct
Solution: a)
The Triffin dilemma or paradox is the conflict of economic interests that arises between short-term domestic and long-term international objectives when a national currency also serves as a world reserve currency. The dilemma of choosing between these objectives was first identified in the 1960s by Belgian-American economist Robert Triffin. He pointed out that the country whose currency, being the global reserve currency, foreign nations wish to hold, must be willing to supply the world with an extra supply of its currency to fulfill world demand for these foreign exchange reserves, and thus cause a trade deficit.
The use of a national currency, e.g., the U.S. dollar, as global reserve currency leads to tension between its national and global monetary policy. This is reflected in fundamental imbalances in the balance of payments, specifically the current account: some goals require an overall flow of dollars out of the United States, while others require an overall flow of dollars into the United States.
Specifically, the Triffin dilemma is usually cited to articulate the problems with the role of the U.S. dollar as the reserve currency under the Bretton Woods system.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
The Triffin dilemma or paradox is the conflict of economic interests that arises between short-term domestic and long-term international objectives when a national currency also serves as a world reserve currency. The dilemma of choosing between these objectives was first identified in the 1960s by Belgian-American economist Robert Triffin. He pointed out that the country whose currency, being the global reserve currency, foreign nations wish to hold, must be willing to supply the world with an extra supply of its currency to fulfill world demand for these foreign exchange reserves, and thus cause a trade deficit.
The use of a national currency, e.g., the U.S. dollar, as global reserve currency leads to tension between its national and global monetary policy. This is reflected in fundamental imbalances in the balance of payments, specifically the current account: some goals require an overall flow of dollars out of the United States, while others require an overall flow of dollars into the United States.
Specifically, the Triffin dilemma is usually cited to articulate the problems with the role of the U.S. dollar as the reserve currency under the Bretton Woods system.
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Question 55 of 100
55. Question
2 points46. Net National Product (NNP) at factor cost does NOT include which of the following?
1. Indirect taxes
2. Subsidies
3. Inflation rates since the base year
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
Correct
Solution: a)
NNP at factor cost = GDP – depreciation – (Indirect taxes – subsidies)
It takes inflation into account and hence is not called national income.
NNP at factor cost at constant prices = GDP at constant prices – depreciation – (Indirect taxes – subsidies)
It takes inflation into account and hence is called national income.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
NNP at factor cost = GDP – depreciation – (Indirect taxes – subsidies)
It takes inflation into account and hence is not called national income.
NNP at factor cost at constant prices = GDP at constant prices – depreciation – (Indirect taxes – subsidies)
It takes inflation into account and hence is called national income.
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Question 56 of 100
56. Question
2 points47. In microeconomics, certain goods and service are described as ‘relatively inelastic services’. Which of the following consumed in India may come in this category?
1. Salt
2. Movie tickets
3. Petrol
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
Correct
Solution: c)
An elastic good is a good where if the price goes up, people will stop buying or greatly reduce demand of a particular product; and if the price goes down, people will greatly increase of increase demand of a particular good. An inelastic good is a good where if the price goes up, people will only slightly reduce demand of a particular product; and if the price goes down, people will only slightly increase demand of a particular good.
Elastic goods are generally non-necessities or luxuries like movie tickets, cars, dinner in restaurants etc. Inelastic goods are generally necessary goods like salt, water, petrol etc.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
An elastic good is a good where if the price goes up, people will stop buying or greatly reduce demand of a particular product; and if the price goes down, people will greatly increase of increase demand of a particular good. An inelastic good is a good where if the price goes up, people will only slightly reduce demand of a particular product; and if the price goes down, people will only slightly increase demand of a particular good.
Elastic goods are generally non-necessities or luxuries like movie tickets, cars, dinner in restaurants etc. Inelastic goods are generally necessary goods like salt, water, petrol etc.
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Question 57 of 100
57. Question
2 points48. In 2013, the Department of Agriculture, Government of India released “Policy and process guidelines for Farmer Produce organizations (FPOs)”. It identifies FPOs based on certain principles. Which are those among the following?
1. Voluntary and open membership (for farmers)
2. Democratic farmer-member control
3. State control and ownership of FPOs
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
Correct
Solution: a)
FPOs are self-help organizations of farmers owned and administered by the farmer-members. Every annual budget from the past few years is making certain concessions to these FPOs. They are usually registered as a company under the Companies Act or as a society under the Societies Registration Act. Please refer to the following document to understand the background and guidelines for FPOs http://nhm.nic.in/Archive/FPO-Policy&Process-GuidelinesDAC2013.pdf
Just scan through the initial 8-10 pages.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
FPOs are self-help organizations of farmers owned and administered by the farmer-members. Every annual budget from the past few years is making certain concessions to these FPOs. They are usually registered as a company under the Companies Act or as a society under the Societies Registration Act. Please refer to the following document to understand the background and guidelines for FPOs http://nhm.nic.in/Archive/FPO-Policy&Process-GuidelinesDAC2013.pdf
Just scan through the initial 8-10 pages.
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Question 58 of 100
58. Question
2 points49. Which of the following acts separated for the first time, the legislative and executive functions of the Governor-general’s council?
Correct
Solution: a)
This legislative council so established came to be known as Central legislative council.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
This legislative council so established came to be known as Central legislative council.
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Question 59 of 100
59. Question
2 points50. Which of the following features of the constitution are borrowed from the Government of India Act, 1935?
1. Public Service Commissions
2. Office of Governor
3. Procedure established by law
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
Correct
Solution: a)
Other features borrowed are federal scheme; judiciary, emergency provisions and other administrative details.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Other features borrowed are federal scheme; judiciary, emergency provisions and other administrative details.
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Question 60 of 100
60. Question
2 points51. Which of the following most appropriately characterizes the socialist nature of the Indian state?
Correct
Solution: c)
Rights and duties clarify the political architecture of the Indian state, to some extent social too. But the socialist essence of the state is characterized best by DPSP.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Rights and duties clarify the political architecture of the Indian state, to some extent social too. But the socialist essence of the state is characterized best by DPSP.
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Question 61 of 100
61. Question
2 points52. For reorganization of a state, which of the following is the correct order of the legislative procedure as per the Article 3 of the constitution?
1. President recommends the bill to the Parliament for reorganization of state(s)
2. President refers the reorganization bill to concerned state(s)
3. Parliament considers the bill for reorganization of state(s)
4. President gives assent to the reorganization bill passed by the Parliament
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
Correct
Solution: b)
Prior Presidential recommendation is required before taking up this bill in Parliament. And before recommending the bill, the President refers the bill to the concerned state legislature.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Prior Presidential recommendation is required before taking up this bill in Parliament. And before recommending the bill, the President refers the bill to the concerned state legislature.
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Question 62 of 100
62. Question
2 pointspurview of Article 368?
1. Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states
2. Conferment of more jurisdiction on the Supreme Court
3. Citizenship – acquisition and termination
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
Correct
Solution: d)
All these require a simple majority in the Parliament and thus are not considered an amendment under Article 368 of the constitution.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
All these require a simple majority in the Parliament and thus are not considered an amendment under Article 368 of the constitution.
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Question 63 of 100
63. Question
2 points54. Elections for which of the following are conducted by the Election Commission of India?
1. Lok Sabha
2. Rajya Sabha
3. Speaker of Lok Sabha
4. State legislative assembly
5. State Legislative Council
6. District level local bodies
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
Correct
Solution: b)
In addition to these, ECI also conducts elections of President, Vice-President etc.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
In addition to these, ECI also conducts elections of President, Vice-President etc.
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Question 64 of 100
64. Question
2 points55. The constitution of India or any Parliamentary Act as made under its provisions (for appointment) does NOT prescribe qualifications (legal, educational, administrative or judicial) for which of the following constitutional posts?
1. Chairman, National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)
2. Chief Election Commissioner (CEC)
3. Members of Finance Commission (FC)
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
Correct
Solution: c)
There are no qualifications mentioned by the constitution for the election commissioners. NHRCF chairman should be a serving or retired judge of the Supreme Court. Members of the FC should be experts in finance, economics, administration etc.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
There are no qualifications mentioned by the constitution for the election commissioners. NHRCF chairman should be a serving or retired judge of the Supreme Court. Members of the FC should be experts in finance, economics, administration etc.
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Question 65 of 100
65. Question
2 points56. Which of the following offices established under the constitution/statues subscribe to oath before assuming office?
1. Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)
2. Chairman, National Commission for SCs
3. Chief Information Commissioner
4. Chairman, UPSC
5. Central Vigilance Commissioner (CVC)
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
Correct
Solution: c)
Other offices which take oath are: President, Vice-President, PM, judges of SC and HC, Union and State Ministers, MPs, Governor, MLAs, MLCs.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Other offices which take oath are: President, Vice-President, PM, judges of SC and HC, Union and State Ministers, MPs, Governor, MLAs, MLCs.
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Question 66 of 100
66. Question
2 points57. Consider the following statements:
1. Apart from the Parliament, the state legislatures can also make provision with respect to several matters relating to elections to the state legislature.
2. Parliament can establish a tribunal for the adjudication of election disputes from which no appeal lies to any court in India.
Which of these is/are INCORRECT?
Correct
Solution: b)
Appeal will lie to both the HC and SC. State legislatures can make laws on all matters related to elections to state legislatures but it should not contravene Parliamentary laws on the same.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Appeal will lie to both the HC and SC. State legislatures can make laws on all matters related to elections to state legislatures but it should not contravene Parliamentary laws on the same.
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Question 67 of 100
67. Question
2 points58. Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT?
Correct
Solution: d)
Self-explanatory. For e.g. Jains were recently recognized as a national religious minority group.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Self-explanatory. For e.g. Jains were recently recognized as a national religious minority group.
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Question 68 of 100
68. Question
2 points59. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: a)
The choice of official language of the state is not restricted to 8th schedule.
It is up to the state to decide their official language. The constitution does not prescribe it for the state.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
The choice of official language of the state is not restricted to 8th schedule.
It is up to the state to decide their official language. The constitution does not prescribe it for the state.
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Question 69 of 100
69. Question
2 points60. Which of the following statements about the Central Information Commissioner (CIC) is INCORRECT?
Correct
Solution: d)
Appeal from SIC lies to the High court. The CIC handles only cases related to the Central government and its agencies.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Appeal from SIC lies to the High court. The CIC handles only cases related to the Central government and its agencies.
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Question 70 of 100
70. Question
2 points61. Parliament consists of
Correct
Solution: c)
Incorrect
Solution: c)
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Question 71 of 100
71. Question
2 points62. Parliament can NOT legislate in subjects mentioned in the state list in which of the following cases?
Correct
Solution: c)
The approval of the concerned state legislatures is required, not the Governor’s.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
The approval of the concerned state legislatures is required, not the Governor’s.
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Question 72 of 100
72. Question
2 points63. Consider the following matches – National Parks with the states they are situated in.
1. Bannerghatta National Park – Karnataka
2. Great Himalayan National Park – Uttarakhand
3. Keoladeo National Park – Rajasthan
Which of these is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: c)
Great Himalayan National Park is located in Himachal Pradesh.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Great Himalayan National Park is located in Himachal Pradesh.
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Question 73 of 100
73. Question
2 points64. Which of the following would negatively affect ocean as a carbon sink?
1. Severe Ozone layer depletion
2. Ocean acidification
3. Global warming
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
Correct
Solution: d)
Severe ozone level depletion will lead to severe penetration of UV rays which would inhibit the growth and even kill phytoplankton populations in the ocean. These are major carbon sinks.
Coral reefs are important in determining the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. The zooxanthellae algae, through photosynthesis, remove carbon dioxide from the air and make carbohydrates available as food for both the zooxanthellae and the coral polyps. Eventually, much of the carbon removed from the air will reside on the ocean bottom in the form of limestone produced by coral polyps.
Ocean acidification and global warming would negatively affect coral reefs, even bleaching them completely. This would result in corals that are much less effective in absorbing carbon from the atmosphere.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Severe ozone level depletion will lead to severe penetration of UV rays which would inhibit the growth and even kill phytoplankton populations in the ocean. These are major carbon sinks.
Coral reefs are important in determining the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. The zooxanthellae algae, through photosynthesis, remove carbon dioxide from the air and make carbohydrates available as food for both the zooxanthellae and the coral polyps. Eventually, much of the carbon removed from the air will reside on the ocean bottom in the form of limestone produced by coral polyps.
Ocean acidification and global warming would negatively affect coral reefs, even bleaching them completely. This would result in corals that are much less effective in absorbing carbon from the atmosphere.
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Question 74 of 100
74. Question
2 points65. As per the Ramsar Convention, 1971, which of the following would come under the definition of ‘wetlands’?
1. Lakes
2. Coastal lagoons
3. Mangrove swamps
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
Correct
Solution: d)
Five major wetland types are generally recognized:
- marine (coastal wetlands including coastal lagoons, rocky shores, and coral reefs);
- estuarine (including deltas, tidal marshes, and mangrove swamps);
- lacustrine (wetlands associated with lakes);
- riverine (wetlands along rivers and streams); and
- palustrine (meaning “marshy” – marshes, swamps and bogs).
In addition, there are human-made wetlands such as fish and shrimp ponds, farm ponds, irrigated agricultural land, salt pans, reservoirs, gravel pits, sewage farms and canals. The Ramsar Convention has adopted a Ramsar Classification of Wetland Type which includes 42 types, grouped into three categories: Marine and Coastal Wetlands, Inland Wetlands, and Human-made Wetlands.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Five major wetland types are generally recognized:
- marine (coastal wetlands including coastal lagoons, rocky shores, and coral reefs);
- estuarine (including deltas, tidal marshes, and mangrove swamps);
- lacustrine (wetlands associated with lakes);
- riverine (wetlands along rivers and streams); and
- palustrine (meaning “marshy” – marshes, swamps and bogs).
In addition, there are human-made wetlands such as fish and shrimp ponds, farm ponds, irrigated agricultural land, salt pans, reservoirs, gravel pits, sewage farms and canals. The Ramsar Convention has adopted a Ramsar Classification of Wetland Type which includes 42 types, grouped into three categories: Marine and Coastal Wetlands, Inland Wetlands, and Human-made Wetlands.
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Question 75 of 100
75. Question
2 points66. Which of the following species are considered critically endangered in India?
1. Great Indian bustard
2. Indian vulture
3. Lesser florican
4. Sarus Crane
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
Correct
Solution: a)
All Gyps species of vultures (Critically Endangered), Forest Owlet (Critically Endangered), Lesser Florican (Endangered), Narcondam Hornbill (Endangered), Sarus Crane (Vulnerable), Yellow-throated Bulbul (Vulnerable), Lesser Flamingo (Near Threatened) and Painted Stork (Near Threatened).
Incorrect
Solution: a)
All Gyps species of vultures (Critically Endangered), Forest Owlet (Critically Endangered), Lesser Florican (Endangered), Narcondam Hornbill (Endangered), Sarus Crane (Vulnerable), Yellow-throated Bulbul (Vulnerable), Lesser Flamingo (Near Threatened) and Painted Stork (Near Threatened).
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Question 76 of 100
76. Question
2 points67. Consider the following statements about Jatropha:
1. It can be used to make bio-fuel.
2. Jatropha plantations do not exist in India.
3. It can be planted in hot and arid regions.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
Correct
Solution: c)
Incorrect
Solution: c)
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Question 77 of 100
77. Question
2 points68. Consider the following:
1. Bacteria and spores.
2. Sea-salt.
3. Pollen grains.
Which of these are naturally found aerosols?
Correct
Solution: d)
Aerosols are fine particles suspended in the atmosphere. Others are volcano ash, water vapour and dust.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Aerosols are fine particles suspended in the atmosphere. Others are volcano ash, water vapour and dust.
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Question 78 of 100
78. Question
2 points69. What is no-till with regard to the practices of Conservation tillage?
Correct
Solution: a)
Conservation tillage is any method of soil cultivation that leaves the previous year’s crop residue (such as corn stalks or wheat stubble) on fields before and after planting the next crop, to reduce soil erosion and runoff.
Conservation tillage methods include no-till, strip-till, ridge-till and mulch-till. Each method requires different types of specialized or modified equipment and adaptations in management.
No-till and strip-till involve planting crops directly into residue that either hasn’t been tilled at all (no-till) or has been tilled only in narrow strips with the rest of the field left untilled (strip-till).
Ridge-till involves planting row crops on permanent ridges about 4-6 inches high. The previous crop’s residue is cleared off ridge-tops into adjacent furrows to make way for the new crop being planted on ridges. Maintaining the ridges is essential and requires modified or specialized equipment.
Mulch-till is any other reduced tillage system that leaves at least one third of the soil surface covered with crop residue.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Conservation tillage is any method of soil cultivation that leaves the previous year’s crop residue (such as corn stalks or wheat stubble) on fields before and after planting the next crop, to reduce soil erosion and runoff.
Conservation tillage methods include no-till, strip-till, ridge-till and mulch-till. Each method requires different types of specialized or modified equipment and adaptations in management.
No-till and strip-till involve planting crops directly into residue that either hasn’t been tilled at all (no-till) or has been tilled only in narrow strips with the rest of the field left untilled (strip-till).
Ridge-till involves planting row crops on permanent ridges about 4-6 inches high. The previous crop’s residue is cleared off ridge-tops into adjacent furrows to make way for the new crop being planted on ridges. Maintaining the ridges is essential and requires modified or specialized equipment.
Mulch-till is any other reduced tillage system that leaves at least one third of the soil surface covered with crop residue.
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Question 79 of 100
79. Question
2 points70. While cutting Onions, there is a burning sensation in the eyes. A certain gas reacts with tears in the eyes to produce a compound ‘X’ which gives this burning sensation? What is X?
Correct
Solution: a)
When you cut an onion, you break cells, releasing their contents. Amino acid sulfoxides form sulfenic acids. Enzymes that were kept separate now are free to mix with the sulfenic acids to produce propanethiol S-oxide, a volatile sulfur compound that wafts upward toward your eyes. This gas reacts with the water in your tears to form sulfuric acid. The sulfuric acid burns, stimulating your eyes to release more tears to wash the irritant away.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
When you cut an onion, you break cells, releasing their contents. Amino acid sulfoxides form sulfenic acids. Enzymes that were kept separate now are free to mix with the sulfenic acids to produce propanethiol S-oxide, a volatile sulfur compound that wafts upward toward your eyes. This gas reacts with the water in your tears to form sulfuric acid. The sulfuric acid burns, stimulating your eyes to release more tears to wash the irritant away.
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Question 80 of 100
80. Question
2 points- Conservation of Asiatic Lions in Gir National Park is part of
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Question 81 of 100
81. Question
2 points- The protesters at the JallianwalaBagh were gathered to protest against
Correct
Solution: b)
The demonstration was to demand the release of two popular leaders of the Indian Independence Movement, Satya Pal and SaifuddinKitchlew, who had been earlier arrested by the government and moved to a secret location.
Along with these protesters, there were also other people who had gathered to celebrate the festival of Baisakhi at JallianwalaBagh.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
The demonstration was to demand the release of two popular leaders of the Indian Independence Movement, Satya Pal and SaifuddinKitchlew, who had been earlier arrested by the government and moved to a secret location.
Along with these protesters, there were also other people who had gathered to celebrate the festival of Baisakhi at JallianwalaBagh.
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Question 82 of 100
82. Question
2 points- With reference to tropical cyclones, consider the following sentences
- The pressure is low at the centre of the cyclone
- The winds in the cyclone are driven by this low-pressure core and by the rotation of Earth
- Tropical cyclones rotate in a clockwise direction in the Northern Hemisphere
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: a)
Tropical cyclones are compact, circular storms, generally some 320 km (200 miles) in diameter, whose winds swirl around a central region of low atmospheric pressure. The winds are driven by this low-pressure core and by the rotation of Earth, which deflects the path of the wind through a phenomenon known as the Coriolis force. As a result, tropical cyclones rotate in a counterclockwise (or cyclonic) direction in the Northern Hemisphere and in a clockwise (or anticyclonic) direction in the Southern Hemisphere.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Tropical cyclones are compact, circular storms, generally some 320 km (200 miles) in diameter, whose winds swirl around a central region of low atmospheric pressure. The winds are driven by this low-pressure core and by the rotation of Earth, which deflects the path of the wind through a phenomenon known as the Coriolis force. As a result, tropical cyclones rotate in a counterclockwise (or cyclonic) direction in the Northern Hemisphere and in a clockwise (or anticyclonic) direction in the Southern Hemisphere.
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Question 83 of 100
83. Question
2 points- In the troposphere
Correct
Solution: c)
Troposphere is the lowest region of the atmosphere, bounded by the Earth beneath and the stratosphereabove, with its upper boundary being the tropopause, about 10–18 km (6–11 miles) above the Earth’s surface. The troposphere is characterized by decreasing temperature with height and is distinguished from the overlying stratosphere by a region of nearly constant temperature in the lower stratosphere. Most of the clouds and weather systems are contained within the troposphere.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Troposphere is the lowest region of the atmosphere, bounded by the Earth beneath and the stratosphereabove, with its upper boundary being the tropopause, about 10–18 km (6–11 miles) above the Earth’s surface. The troposphere is characterized by decreasing temperature with height and is distinguished from the overlying stratosphere by a region of nearly constant temperature in the lower stratosphere. Most of the clouds and weather systems are contained within the troposphere.
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Question 84 of 100
84. Question
2 points- With reference to mixed farming, consider the following statements
- Variety of crops – both cash and non-cash crops are produced together in mixed farming
- Mixed farming is dominant in the European countries
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: b)
Mixed farming is an agrarian system that mixes arable farming with the raising of livestock. When on a farm along-with crop production, some other agriculture based practice like poultry, dairy farming or bee keeping etc. is adopted, then this system of farming is known as mixed farming. It is the dominant system in Europe and now in parts of India, where most farms have a mixture offields and pastures.It was first mainly used for self-consumption, but now in Advanced countries like USA, Japan ,etc., this is done for a commercial purpose.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Mixed farming is an agrarian system that mixes arable farming with the raising of livestock. When on a farm along-with crop production, some other agriculture based practice like poultry, dairy farming or bee keeping etc. is adopted, then this system of farming is known as mixed farming. It is the dominant system in Europe and now in parts of India, where most farms have a mixture offields and pastures.It was first mainly used for self-consumption, but now in Advanced countries like USA, Japan ,etc., this is done for a commercial purpose.
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Question 85 of 100
85. Question
2 points- Which of the following is NOT considered as a cereal
- Green Peas
- Buckwheat
- Sorghum
- Barley
- Rice
Choose the correct answer using the codes below
Correct
Solution: a)
Except groundnut, all are cereals.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Except groundnut, all are cereals.
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Question 86 of 100
86. Question
2 points- Cabbeling, which is an ocean related phenomena, is
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Question 87 of 100
87. Question
2 points- Consider the following statements
- The Indian Independence Act 1947 was as an Act of the provisional Parliament of the India
- The main provision of the Indian Independence Act 1947 was the division of British India into the two new and fully sovereign dominions of India and Pakistan, with effect from 15 August 1947
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: b)
The Indian Independence Act 1947 was as an Act of the Parliament of the United Kingdom that partitioned British India into the two new independent dominions of India and Pakistan. The Act received the royal assent on 18 July 1947, and Pakistan came into being on August 14, and India on August 15, as two new countries
Incorrect
Solution: b)
The Indian Independence Act 1947 was as an Act of the Parliament of the United Kingdom that partitioned British India into the two new independent dominions of India and Pakistan. The Act received the royal assent on 18 July 1947, and Pakistan came into being on August 14, and India on August 15, as two new countries
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Question 88 of 100
88. Question
2 points- With reference to Pahari painting, consider the following statements
- It is a style of miniature painting
- Basohli and Kangra school of arts both follow the Pahari style
- The life of Krishna is the dominant theme in these paintings
Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?
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Question 89 of 100
89. Question
2 points- Consider the following statements
- The Bengal which was partitioned in 1905 was never reunited later
- In 1947, Bengal was partitioned solely on language grounds
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: d)
In 1911, Bengal was reunited.
In 1947, Bengal was partitioned for the second time, solely on religious grounds, as part of the Partition of India following the formation of the nations India and Pakistan.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
In 1911, Bengal was reunited.
In 1947, Bengal was partitioned for the second time, solely on religious grounds, as part of the Partition of India following the formation of the nations India and Pakistan.
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Question 90 of 100
90. Question
2 points- Consider the following statements
- The oldest Veda is Rigveda
- The Rigveda contains thousands of hymns praising gods and goddesses
Which of the above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: c)
The oldest Veda is the Rigveda,composed about 3500 years ago. The Rigvedaincludes more than a thousand hymns, calledsukta or “well-said”. These hymns are in praiseof various gods and goddesses. Three gods are especially important: Agni, the god of fire; Indra,a warrior god; and Soma, a plant from which a special drink was prepared.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
The oldest Veda is the Rigveda,composed about 3500 years ago. The Rigvedaincludes more than a thousand hymns, calledsukta or “well-said”. These hymns are in praiseof various gods and goddesses. Three gods are especially important: Agni, the god of fire; Indra,a warrior god; and Soma, a plant from which a special drink was prepared.
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Question 91 of 100
91. Question
2 points- Consider the following statements
- NilgiriLangur is endemic to India
- Endemics can easily become threatened or extinct if new species are introduced to their regions
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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Question 92 of 100
92. Question
2 points- With reference to Tsunamis, consider the following statements
- They are caused both by earthquakes and volcanoes
- Tsunami waves are caused by the sudden subduction of tectonic plates during earthquakes
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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Question 93 of 100
93. Question
2 points- With reference to The Nehru Report in August 1928, consider the following statements
- It was a memorandum outlining a proposed new dominion status constitution for India.
- It was prepared by a committee headed by Motilal Nehru
- Jawaharlal Nehru was not part of this committee
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: a)
The Nehru Report in August 1928 was a memorandum outlining a proposed new dominion status constitution for India. It was prepared by a committee of the All Parties Conference chaired by Motilal Nehru with his son Jawaharlal acting as secretary. There were nine other members in this committee, including two Muslims. However, the final report was signed by only eight persons: Motilal Nehru, Ali Imam, TejBahadurSapru, M.-S. Aney, Mangal Singh, ShuaibQureshi, Subhas Chandra Bose, and G. R. Pradhan . Shuaaib Qureshi disagreeing with some of the recommendations.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
The Nehru Report in August 1928 was a memorandum outlining a proposed new dominion status constitution for India. It was prepared by a committee of the All Parties Conference chaired by Motilal Nehru with his son Jawaharlal acting as secretary. There were nine other members in this committee, including two Muslims. However, the final report was signed by only eight persons: Motilal Nehru, Ali Imam, TejBahadurSapru, M.-S. Aney, Mangal Singh, ShuaibQureshi, Subhas Chandra Bose, and G. R. Pradhan. Shuaaib Qureshi disagreeing with some of the recommendations.
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Question 94 of 100
94. Question
2 points- In India, Lahnda language is spoken in some parts of
Correct
Solution: b)
The prevailing languages are Sindhi in the southwest, Lahnda in the northwest, andRajasthani languages—especially Marwari—in central and eastern portions of the Thar
Lahnda language, also called Lahndi or Western Punjabi , group of Indo-Aryan dialects spoken in and around the western districts of Punjab province in Pakistan.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
The prevailing languages are Sindhi in the southwest, Lahnda in the northwest, andRajasthani languages—especially Marwari—in central and eastern portions of the Thar
Lahnda language, also called Lahndi or Western Punjabi , group of Indo-Aryan dialects spoken in and around the western districts of Punjab province in Pakistan.
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Question 95 of 100
95. Question
2 points- Consider the following statements
- Sufism spread prominently during the reign of Delhi Sultanate
- The spread of Islam in India during medieval period is mainly attributed to the sufi influence on people
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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Question 96 of 100
96. Question
2 points- The yellow colour of red soils is due to the presence of
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Question 97 of 100
97. Question
2 points- In Southern Asia, the north-eastern monsoons take place from December to early March when
Correct
Solution: b)
While travelling towards the Indian Ocean, the dry cold wind picks up some moisture from the Bay of Bengal and pours it over peninsularIndia and parts of Sri Lanka. Cities like Chennai, which get less rain from the Southwest Monsoon, receives rain from this Monsoon. About 50% to 60% of the rain received by the state of Tamil Nadu is from the Northeast Monsoon. In Southern Asia, the northeastern monsoons take place from December to early March when the surface high-pressure system is strongest.[29] The jet stream in this region splits into the southern subtropical jet and the polar jet. The subtropical flow directs northeasterly winds to blow across southern Asia, creating dry air streams which produce clear skies over India. Meanwhile, a low pressure system develops over South-East Asia and Australasia and winds are directed towardAustralia known as a monsoon trough.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
While travelling towards the Indian Ocean, the dry cold wind picks up some moisture from the Bay of Bengal and pours it over peninsularIndia and parts of Sri Lanka. Cities like Chennai, which get less rain from the Southwest Monsoon, receives rain from this Monsoon. About 50% to 60% of the rain received by the state of Tamil Nadu is from the Northeast Monsoon. In Southern Asia, the northeastern monsoons take place from December to early March when the surface high-pressure system is strongest.[29] The jet stream in this region splits into the southern subtropical jet and the polar jet. The subtropical flow directs northeasterly winds to blow across southern Asia, creating dry air streams which produce clear skies over India. Meanwhile, a low pressure system develops over South-East Asia and Australasia and winds are directed towardAustralia known as a monsoon trough.
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Question 98 of 100
98. Question
2 points- The South Asian river dolphin is found
Correct
Solution: c)
The South Asian river dolphin (Platanista gangetica) is a freshwater or river dolphin found in India, Bangladesh, Nepal and Pakistanwhich is split into two subspecies, the Ganges river dolphin (P. g. gangetica) and Indus river dolphin (P. g. minor).[2] The Ganges river dolphin is primarily found in the Ganges and Brahmaputra Rivers and their tributaries in Bangladesh, India and Nepal, while the Indus river dolphin is found in the Indus River in Pakistan and its Beas and Sutlej tributaries.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
The South Asian river dolphin (Platanista gangetica) is a freshwater or river dolphin found in India, Bangladesh, Nepal and Pakistanwhich is split into two subspecies, the Ganges river dolphin (P. g. gangetica) and Indus river dolphin (P. g. minor).[2] The Ganges river dolphin is primarily found in the Ganges and Brahmaputra Rivers and their tributaries in Bangladesh, India and Nepal, while the Indus river dolphin is found in the Indus River in Pakistan and its Beas and Sutlej tributaries.
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Question 99 of 100
99. Question
2 points- Consider the following statements
- Satyagraha forbids any tactic suggesting the use of secrecy to one’s advantage
- Civil disobedience is equivalent to Satyagraha
- For Gandhiji, along with Jain principles, the inspiration for launching Satyagraha also came from holy Koran
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: b)
satyagraha, ( Hindi: “insistence on truth” or “zeal for truth”) concept introduced in the early 20th century by Mahatma Gandhi to designate a determined but nonviolent resistance to evil. Gandhi’ssatyagraha became a major tool in the Indian struggle against British imperialism and has since been adopted by protest groups in other countries.
According to this philosophy, satyagrahis—practitioners of satyagraha—achieve correct insight into the real nature of an evil situation by observing a nonviolence of the mind, by seeking truth in a spirit of peace and love, and by undergoing a rigorous process of self-scrutiny. In so doing, thesatyagrahi encounters truth in the absolute. By his refusal to submit to the wrong or to cooperate with it in any way, the satyagrahi asserts this truth. Throughout his confrontation with the evil, he must adhere to nonviolence, for to employ violence would be to lose correct insight. A satyagrahialways warns his opponents of his intentions; satyagraha forbids any tactic suggesting the use of secrecy to one’s advantage. Satyagraha includes more than civil disobedience; its full range of application extends from the details of correct daily living to the construction of alternative political and economic institutions. Satyagraha seeks to conquer through conversion; in the end, there is neither defeat nor victory but rather a new harmony.
Satyagraha draws from the ancient Indian ideal of ahimsa (“noninjury”), which is pursued with particular rigour by Jains. In developing ahimsa into a modern concept with broad political consequences, as satyagraha, Gandhi also drew from the writings of Leo Tolstoy and Henry David Thoreau, from the Bible, and from the Bhagavadgita, the great Sanskrit epic. Gandhi first conceivedsatyagraha in 1906 in response to a law discriminating against Asians that was passed by the British colonial government of the Transvaal in South Africa. In 1917 the first satyagraha campaign in India was mounted in the indigo-growing district of Champaran. During the following years, fasting and economic boycotts were employed as methods of satyagraha, until the British left India in 1947.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
satyagraha, ( Hindi: “insistence on truth” or “zeal for truth”) concept introduced in the early 20th century by Mahatma Gandhi to designate a determined but nonviolent resistance to evil. Gandhi’ssatyagraha became a major tool in the Indian struggle against British imperialism and has since been adopted by protest groups in other countries.
According to this philosophy, satyagrahis—practitioners of satyagraha—achieve correct insight into the real nature of an evil situation by observing a nonviolence of the mind, by seeking truth in a spirit of peace and love, and by undergoing a rigorous process of self-scrutiny. In so doing, thesatyagrahi encounters truth in the absolute. By his refusal to submit to the wrong or to cooperate with it in any way, the satyagrahi asserts this truth. Throughout his confrontation with the evil, he must adhere to nonviolence, for to employ violence would be to lose correct insight. A satyagrahialways warns his opponents of his intentions; satyagraha forbids any tactic suggesting the use of secrecy to one’s advantage. Satyagraha includes more than civil disobedience; its full range of application extends from the details of correct daily living to the construction of alternative political and economic institutions. Satyagraha seeks to conquer through conversion; in the end, there is neither defeat nor victory but rather a new harmony.
Satyagraha draws from the ancient Indian ideal of ahimsa (“noninjury”), which is pursued with particular rigour by Jains. In developing ahimsa into a modern concept with broad political consequences, as satyagraha, Gandhi also drew from the writings of Leo Tolstoy and Henry David Thoreau, from the Bible, and from the Bhagavadgita, the great Sanskrit epic. Gandhi first conceivedsatyagraha in 1906 in response to a law discriminating against Asians that was passed by the British colonial government of the Transvaal in South Africa. In 1917 the first satyagraha campaign in India was mounted in the indigo-growing district of Champaran. During the following years, fasting and economic boycotts were employed as methods of satyagraha, until the British left India in 1947.
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Question 100 of 100
100. Question
2 points- The Chambal River is a tributary of
Correct
Solution: a)
The Chambal is a tributary of the Yamuna River in central India, and forms part of the greater Gangetic drainage system. The river flows north-northeast through Madhya Pradesh, running for a time through Rajasthan, then forming the boundary between Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh before turning southeast to join the Yamuna in Uttar Pradesh state.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
The Chambal is a tributary of the Yamuna River in central India, and forms part of the greater Gangetic drainage system. The river flows north-northeast through Madhya Pradesh, running for a time through Rajasthan, then forming the boundary between Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh before turning southeast to join the Yamuna in Uttar Pradesh state.